First let me say that I appreciate you answering some of my questions.
[My question 1...]
They were righteous because of their faith and were blameless because they were faithful to GOD's revealed will at that time. In other words, they had faith in GOD, which made them righteous, which they expressed blamelessly through what GOD had mandated for that people and time, i.e., law. It doesn't say that they were righteous because they walked in the law; it says they walked blamelessly in the law.
Ok, I can definitely appreciate this. It's the same way Abraham was righteous through his faith...and like Zechariah & Elizabeth, that faith was expressed through obedience in doing what he was told to do.
Faith alone...expressed through obedience (in doing what one's told to do) = Righteous in God's eyes
So from your perspective, where doesn't this formula break down for us when we do the same thing? For instance, I have faith in Christ, the son of the Living God...I express that faith though obedience in doing what the Son tells me to do...
the son tells me to obey God's law, right? Or is this (the colored portion) where the disagreement is; that the son didn't say obey God's law (coined as "the law of Moses")?
They did not know what we know. We have been blessed with words of light directly from the mouth of GOD himself, rather than words spoken in shadows from the mouth of an imperfect man. To state that the two revelations are equal is beyond foolish.
I agree with the bold part wholeheartedly...but I think the rest of your statement is actually switch for us and them. I think if anyone received the words of light *directly from the mouth* of God, they did (God spoke the commandments to them before they were written down, and it was because they couldn't bear to hear his voice anymore that they asked to go through Moses for the rest; and they got the rest of it in spans of 40 days, from 1 man talking to God directly). Contrarily, we're the ones reading this truth though pages penned hundreds and hundreds of years after the fact, through translations of translations. I suspect we've the shadow of imperfect men to deal with imo.
This is why I'm guided to believe people like Zech and Liz (and Abraham) knew the truth of Christ (before he was here) *far better* than we do...especially when they were graced by the presence of "angels of God" face to face, you know? It was even said by Christ that Abraham saw him through his faith and was glad.
GOD in the flesh said the work of GOD is to believe into his son. He didn't say to do the works of the law of Moses. GOD on the mount of transfiguration said to listen to his son, not Moses or Elijah. The message? The light has now come; turn from the shadows to the light.
Ok I'm with you one this...now in my studies, the next question I ask myself if
"what did the son *say*?"
Of course, Christ said many things so I can't sit in front of this screen and type everything out...but we know that nothing he said contradicts anything else he said, so please give me your take on these passages [portions emphasized for effect]:
Matthew 23:1-3
23 Then spake Jesus to the multitude, and to his disciples,
2 Saying The scribes and the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat [i.e. purport to have Moses' authority]:
3 All therefore whatsoever they bid you observe, that observe and do; but do not ye after their works: for they say, and do not.
I personally think this passage was mistranslated from "
he" to "
they", but regardless of which one you pick...if we are to listen to what Christ *said*,
didn't he just tell the multitude AND his disciples to follow the law of Moses?
Matthew 26:36-40
36 Master, which is the great commandment **in the law**?
37 Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind.
38 This is the first and great commandment.
39 And the second is like unto it, Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself.
40 On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets.
I ask myself, "in (i.e. within) what law?" Someone asked which commandment -
WITHIN God's law (i.e. the law passed down through Moses) - is the greatest or most important. My reasoning suggests that this disciple wanted to know which of God's laws to laser-focus on the most in order to (again) "
be faithful to God through obedience in doing what he said to do"...and is now
listening exactly to what THE PROPHET,
THE son of God, has to say. This tells me Christ is advocating God's law.
Isn't this what Christ said or is there another interpretation of this I should consider?
So basically, believing that works of law can perfect someone or make them pleasing to GOD is an anachronistic belief that places them in direct opposition to GOD's revealed will for this people and time.
[My question 3...]
They were righteous because of faith. They were blameless in the law because they met its requirements for themselves. That is a far cry from fulfilling the law by meeting all of its requirements perfectly. Elizabeth and Zechariah didn't keep the law perfectly; they were blameless because they offered the required sacrifices when they sinned.
The bold I agree with, but scripture doesn't say Zech and Liz didn't keep the law perfectly nor does it say they sinned and so required personal sacrifices...but indeed if we are to harmonize ALL of scripture that says "
all have sinned" I must conclude that they DID sin and did offer personal sacrifices...and from the perspective of the revelation *they* received,
their sin sacrifice WAS reckoned as "Christ", in faith.
However, in following all that God's Law prescribed, didn't they keep to it perfectly? The word for word greek-to-english is "
walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the lord blameless"...and when I look up "blameless" the Greek word is "amemptoi" which means "free from fault or defect".
What I'm getting at is this...to show their faith to God Zech & Liz were obedient to what he said (and he said follow his law)...and if & when they sinned they had the blood of their lamb to cover them so they wouldn't have to die, but could (instead) repent and continue to walk in obedience to the law God said to follow.
Isn't this EXACTLY what we have in Christ? In other words, Christ is the sacrifice for our sin so we are free from the *consequence* of the law (i.e. our death), so we can repent and continue to walk in obedience to the law God said to follow.
Christ's sacrifice paid for sins committed against the law under the old covenant. That law has been satisfied, and the priesthood that officiated it has been abolished. To disregard what has been spoken for this time through the eternal priesthood of Christ, and revert back to a former dispensation of law (under a non-existent priesthood), that is clearly witnessed in scripture can perfect no one, is lawlessness.
Truly, the Levitical priesthood was temporary and those subsection of laws were to administrate the breach...which now has been repaired by Christ so THOSE laws are done away with...but
isn't it true that God gave laws to follow *before* adding the Levitical laws after Israel sinned? I think this may be our problem (in both camps); we may be lumping everything together.