Did Jesus have a Hebrew name? Really?

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Hizikyah

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Aug 25, 2013
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You have clearly demonstrated how hardened your heart is against Christ. You are bordering on blasphemy of the Holy Ghost, and you don't even realize it, do you? In Acts 13:9, Paul no longer went by the name Saul. He was now saved, filled by the Spirit of God and his name from that point on was Paul. The only times the name Saul is used after that verse is when he relates his conversion.
Jewish names are the old way. Under the law. Once Paul was converted he became a new man. A man that now was known as Paul not the carnal man Saul. Why do you reject the work of the Holy Ghost? The Holy Ghost filled Paul and made him a new man, and you are trying to keep him saddled with the carnal Saul. Do you know how blasphemous that is?
SO if one dosent use the Roman name of Shaul, Paul they hate Jesus and ghosts?

Yahchanan (John) 4:24, "Yahweh is a Spirit and those who worship Him must worship Him in Spirit and in truth."

Isayah 59:21, "As for Me, this is My covenant with them, says Yahweh: My Spirit which is upon you, namely My Word (Instructions) which I have put in your mouth; they will not depart from your mouth, nor from the mouth of your seed, nor from the mouth of your seed's seed, says Yahweh: from this time and forevermore."

Yahchanan 6:63, "It is the Spirit that gives life; the flesh is useless. The Words (Instructions) that I speak to you, they are Spirit, and they are life everlasting."

Ezekiyl 36:26-27, "A new heart; mind, will I also give you, and a new spirit will I put within you; and I will take away the heart of stone out of your flesh, and will give you a heart of flesh. And I will put my Spirit in you and move you to follow my decrees and be careful to keep My Laws."
 

Angela53510

Senior Member
Jan 24, 2011
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Jesus and the apostles used BOTH Bibles! In fact, when Jesus is speaking to Pilate before he is condemned to death, there is no hint of a translator, because Jesus was fluent in Greek, like the rest of the people living in Judea.

Here is a good commentary on the use of the Hebrew and Greek Bibles. It seems the disciples knew them both well.

"The Septuagint [LXX] was the first translation of the Hebrew Bible and was made in the third century B.C. by Jewish scribes, who were direct descendents of those trained in Ezra's Great Synagogue of Jerusalem. They were complete experts in the text, being very well versed in Hebrew and Greek.This translation became very popular among Jews in the first two centuries before Christ because many Jews in those days did not understand Hebrew. Their ancestors had left Israel centuries before, and generation after generation gradually lost the ability to read the Scriptures in Hebrew.
Many of the Jews in Jesus' day used the Septuagint as their Bible. Quite naturally, the early Christians also used the Septuagint in their meetings and for personal reading; and many of the New Testament apostles quoted it when they wrote the Gospels and Epistles in Greek. What is most fascinating is that the order of the books in the Septuagint is the same order in our Bibles today, and not like the Hebrew scrolls....
Jesus and the Apostles studied, memorized, used, quoted, and read most often from the Bible of their day, the Septuagint. Since Matthew wrote primarily to convince the Jews that Jesus of Nazareth was indeed their promised Messiah, it follows as a matter of course that his Gospel is saturated with the Hebrew Scriptures. Yet, when Jesus quotes the Old Testament in Matthew, He uses the Hebrew text only 10% of the time, but the Greek LXX translation 90% of the time!
Amazingly, Jesus and Paul used the LXX as their primary Bible. It was just like the Bible each of us holds in our hands, not the original Hebrew Old Testament, but a translation of the Hebrew into Greek. But it was based on exactly the same original and inspired words, and reads just like the Bible we hold in our hands today."

"Guns, Lies and Forgeries: A Bible Story
By Robert E. Reis

Once upon a time there was a tribe living in the Middle East that had a collection of sacred texts written in Hebrew, Chaldean and Aramaic. It is the nature of sacred texts to be venerated and transmitted from generation to generation unaltered.

As time passed members of this tribe emigrated to areas where Hebrew and Aramaic and Chaldean were not spoken. A large community settled and prospered in the city of Alexandria in Egypt. Greek replaced their tribal language. They needed an accurate translation of their venerated documents into Greek.

Around 250 B.C. seventy rabbis translated the sacred texts into Greek. This translation was not a bootleg edition. The project was approved by the High Priest and the Sanhedrin in Jerusalem. The Septuagint, the translation of the seventy, was an official document.

A Hebrew Bible exists today. It is used by Jews everywhere. It is called the Masoretic text. It was compiled around 700 A.D. It is almost one thousand years newer than the Septuagint. The rabbis who compiled the Masoretic text were not accountable to the High Priest in Jerusalem. There no longer was a High Priest. The rabbis who compiled the Masoretic text were not accountable to the Sanhedrin in Jerusalem. There no longer was a Sanhedrin.

The Septuagint predates the first appearance of the Masoretic text by almost ten centuries. The Septuagint is based upon Hebrew texts at least twelve centuries older than the texts upon which the Masoretic version is based. .Yet, modern Christian translations of the Old Testament rely on the Masoretic Text, not the Septuagint.

Where is the problem?

Most of the quotations from the Old Testament in the New Testament used the Septuagint as their primary source. The integrity and truthfulness of the Septuagint is completely dependant on the Septuagint being a truthful translation. Discredit the Septuagint and there is no New Testament.

There was no controversy about the integrity of the Septuagint from 250 B.C. until 135 A. D.

What had happened to provoke dissatisfaction with the Septuagint among the Jews?

Annas and Caiphas and the Sanhedrin had rejected the messianic claims of Jesus. The New Testament documents had been written and were circulating by A.D. 70. The Jews knew that the credibility of the Christian Gospels depended on the credibility of the Septuagint. Something had to be done.

Around 95 A.D. Rabbi Akiva, who later proclaimed Bar Kochba as the messiah, hired a man named Aquila to translate a Hebrew to Greek version of the Old Testament that would undermine the messianic claims of Jesus found in the Septuagint. Some scholars believe that the Masoretic text was based in part on this tendentious translation by Aquila.

How is the Masoretic text different from the Septuagint?

Psalm 22:16 the word “pierced” has been replaced by “lion”.

Psalm 145: 13 omitted entirely.

Isaiah 53:11 the word “light” is omitted.

On 134 occasions the Tetragrammaton, the name of God, has been replaced by “Adonai”.

Psalm 151 was omitted entirely. (It is now omitted by almost all Christian Bibles!)

Exodus 1: The number 75 replaced by 70

Genesis 10:24 some generations removed.

Deuteronomy 32:8 “Angels Of Elohim” replaced with “children of Israel.”

Jeremiah 10 verses 6 and 7 have been added in the Masoretic.

Psalm 96:10 “Say among the nations, YHWH reigns from the wood” omitted.

Isaiah 19:18 “city of righteousness” changed to the “city of the sun” or in some versions “the city of destruction.”

The Masoretic scribes purposely and willfully rearranged the original chapter order in the prophetic Book of Daniel, so that the chapters make no sense chronologically.

Isaiah 61:1 “recovery of sight to the blind.”. Omitted.

In Psalm 40:6 “a body you have prepared for me” was replaced by “you opened my ears.”

Deuteronomy 32:43 ‘Let all the messengers of Elohim worship him.’” Omitted.

Genesis 4:8: “Let us go into the field” is omitted.

Deuteronomy 32:43. Moses’ song is shortened.

Isaiah 53 contains 10 spelling differences, 4 stylistic changes and 3 missing letters for light in verse 11, for a total of 17 differences.

Isaiah 7:14. “Virgin” replaced by “young woman.”

(When Aquila made his Greek translation of the Old Testament at the behest of Rabbi Akiva, he changed the Septuagint’s “virgin” into “young woman”. The Masoretic compilers may have followed his lead.)

The Masoretic text differs from the Septuagint in hundreds of places.

How do we know which text is accurate?

The Dead Sea Scrolls were discovered just after World War II.

According to carbon dating, textual analysis, and handwriting analysis the documents were written at various times between the middle of the 2nd century BC and the 1st century AD. There are fragments from all of the books of the Hebrew Bible fragments except the Book of Esther and the Book of Nehemiah.

In addition an independent Aramaic translation of the Hebrew Bible exists, the Peshitta.

Control of the Dead Sea Scrolls was a military objective of Israelis. It was achieved by their victory in the Six Days War.

The publication of the scrolls slowed to a trickle.

After 1971, the international team even refused to allow the publication of photographs of the material. They excluded scholars who wanted to make independent evaluations.

The embargo was not broken until 1991.

An addition to the Dead Sea Scrolls, scholars can use the Peshitta to decide between the Masoretic text and the Septuagint.

I have given examples above of some of the places the Dead Sea Scrolls, the Peshitta, and the Septuagint agree.

The Masoretic Text is part of a tradition that began with Rabbi Akiva. Rabbis rewrote the Jewish Bible to destroy the credibility of the New Testament.

The Hebrew versions of the Old Testament have been used to proclaim scores of “messiahs” . The Septuagint was only used once."

MYSTAGOGY: Septuagint vs. Masoretic: Which Is More Authentic?
Actually, the Orthodox Church has always translated from the Septuagint, and they were the first Christians, simply because they lived in that area of the Middle East. They are very strongly against use of the Masoretic text, simply because it came so late, and there were corruptions.

Here is an interesting link to a comparison of the Old Testament texts when they are quoted in the New Testament.

Septuagint vs. Masoretic Text | The Orthodox Life

(Not saying I agree totally with Orthodox theology, but interesting that they maintain it is more accurate than the Masoretic Text.)
 

WomanLovesTX

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Jan 1, 2010
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You have clearly demonstrated how hardened your heart is against Christ. You are bordering on blasphemy of the Holy Ghost, and you don't even realize it, do you? In Acts 13:9, Paul no longer went by the name Saul. He was now saved, filled by the Spirit of God and his name from that point on was Paul. The only times the name Saul is used after that verse is when he relates his conversion.
Jewish names are the old way. Under the law. Once Paul was converted he became a new man. A man that now was known as Paul not the carnal man Saul. Why do you reject the work of the Holy Ghost? The Holy Ghost filled Paul and made him a new man, and you are trying to keep him saddled with the carnal Saul. Do you know how blasphemous that is?
Could you be more specific? A follower of Christ and not a follower of Paul is one who is led by the Holy Spirit. Are you elevating Paul over Christ?
 
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phil112

Guest
Could you be more specific? A follower of Christ and not a follower of Paul is one who is led by the Holy Spirit. Are you elevating Paul over Christ?
What I said needs no explanation. I said what I meant and meant what I said. "elevating Paul over Christ"? What corner of your imagination did you come up with that?????
Read it again.
 
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danschance

Guest
"Amazingly, Jesus and Paul used the LXX as their primary Bible"

LOL
Have you done any reading into the Hellenization of the Jews? i think it might help you in understanding that time period. The LXX was popular, at the time. I think Paul read it as He more than likely spoke Greek. Not John chapter 1 and how it incorporates a Greek concept of the "logos'. Again, this points to a wide fluency in Greek among this period.
 
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danschance

Guest
Jesus and the apostles used BOTH Bibles! In fact, when Jesus is speaking to Pilate before he is condemned to death, there is no hint of a translator, because Jesus was fluent in Greek, like the rest of the people living in Judea.
Yes, I posted this earlier. Pilate spoke to the crowd and they answered him. Again, no mention that there was any interpreter. Further evidence of widespread Hellenization is that all the of the NT is in Greek. Anecdotal evidence suggest that Matthew may of been written in Hebrew but this has never been confirmed. Indeed many Jews spoke Greek, in fact many more spoke greek than Hebrew, even with in the borders of Israel.
 

Hizikyah

Senior Member
Aug 25, 2013
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Have you done any reading into the Hellenization of the Jews? i think it might help you in understanding that time period. The LXX was popular, at the time. I think Paul read it as He more than likely spoke Greek. Not John chapter 1 and how it incorporates a Greek concept of the "logos'. Again, this points to a wide fluency in Greek among this period.
I agree with most of what you say surely, and I have read a little about Hellenization, I do need to study more I admit openly, but from what I have read while it did effect the society or even region greatly, 100% Yahshua and Shaul spoke Hebrew and when Yahshua spoke to Shaul He spoke in "the holy language" which I assume is Hebrew. Also since Yahshua was a no nonsense truth only no compromise teacher I find it hard to believe He read from a scroll that had 100s to 1,000s of errors in it (I ahve read according to scholars, I study the Hebrew when I study the "Ot" why add a layer of translation when I can study the original?) and removed the name of Yahweh (not to get on he name, but He scolded the pharisee for hiding the name, how could He have done so if He didnt use it either)
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
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You have clearly demonstrated how hardened your heart is against Christ. You are bordering on blasphemy of the Holy Ghost, and you don't even realize it, do you? In Acts 13:9, Paul no longer went by the name Saul. He was now saved, filled by the Spirit of God and his name from that point on was Paul. The only times the name Saul is used after that verse is when he relates his conversion.
Jewish names are the old way. Under the law. Once Paul was converted he became a new man. A man that now was known as Paul not the carnal man Saul. Why do you reject the work of the Holy Ghost? The Holy Ghost filled Paul and made him a new man, and you are trying to keep him saddled with the carnal Saul. Do you know how blasphemous that is?
The Bible continued to call him 'Saul' for some time after his conversion. His name wasn't changed at conversion. His Hebrew name did not become unholy because he converted. He didn't grow a foreskin and become a Greek because he converted to faith in the Messiah.

The Bible doesn't say that God renamed him Paul. It says Saul, also called Paul. So he was called by both. We read that a Roman official named Paul converted through his preaching. After that, the text introduces his other name of Paul, and calls him that throughout. Maybe he'd always had Paul as a Greek name. I wonder if Sergius Paulus adopted im and gave him his name. Or maybe he liked the name and decided it would work better cross culturally than the name Saul. Whatever the case, pointing out that there is no passage of scripture where it says that Christ changed it is not blasphemy.
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
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The idea that the Septuigint would have been Jesus' main text seems a bit ridiculous to me. The LXX may have had a lot more copies because of the numbers of Hellenized Jews throughout the empire and the fact that it was much cheaper to produce (according to Edersheim) because of the lack of scribal restrictions and rituals related in copying the Greek. But from what I've read, in the holy land, Jews were primarily Aramaic-speaking. Possibly, some of them were Hebrew speaking. Apparently, Hebrew languages had survived the Babylonian captivity among the poorer classes. The Babylonians left the 'people of the land' and took away the elite. The people of the land could have been quite large in number for all we know. The Edomites were still around speaking a langauge or dialect similar to Hebrew, and so were other peoples.

Alexander the great conquered the holy land, and the dynasty that came after him did try to Hellenize the Jews in the holy land. But they did not completely succeed. There was a rebellion and a Jewish priestly family started it's own kingdom, got friendly with the Romans as an ally, and ended up coming under Roman rule.

Just studying Acts, we see evidence that the Jews weren't completely Greek speaking. One translation calls references to their language 'Hebrew' and another 'Aramaic.' Jesus spoke to Paul in Hebrew. Paul addressed a crowd in the temple in Hebrew when they accused him of bringing in Gentiles. Apparently, the people could understand what he was saying.

In the Jerusalem church, there was a disagreement between Hellenized Jews and Judean Jews over the feeding of the widows. there was a Hellenized synagogue that debated with Stephen before he was stoned. Apparently, there were local Jews who spoke Aramaic or Hebrew. But Jews scattered throughout the empire spoke Greek. Locals had real Hebrew Torah scrolls. Hellenized Jews used the Septuigint, with many consisering it to be inspired. It may have been the case that Hellenized Jews considered it pious to retire in Jerusalem after saving up their life's savings, leaving behind their younger widows, some of whom ended up poor.

The tradition of the LXX was that 70 elders from the large Jewish community in the Greek colony of Alexandria in Egypt were separated and told to translate the law of Moses, and that working independently, each miraculously came up with the same translation. This work was called the Septuigint after the number of elders that allegedly translated it. Translations of other books were added, which were also referred to as Septuigint later. Many Hellenized Jews considered the translation to be inspired and it was used in Hellenistic synagogues. Likely, the synagogue of the freedmen in Jerusalem used it, while a synagogue of local people used a proper Hebrew Torah and scrolls of the prophets.
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
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Just as in English, some words have many meanings. Yeshua was called God with us, Immanuel, however it is a group of words forming this title or reputation. The word, NAME, in Hebrew also may be translated as reputation and/or fame. Ee man nu means with us, while El means God (Elohim.) Yeshua was called God with us on occasions, and still is. As for the word, Shalom, it has many translations, many meanins, and when it is used, they are all intended. If recognizing the faith of Abtraham oas indicated by Yeshua, is snobbery, then I hope there are a lot of snobs out there.

It is not necessary to speak any language to be saved, but criticizing others for learning a language in order to please the Father is not good; it is evil. I can barely get by reading Hebrew, but it is my choice to continue, others who love the Lord need not study any language, but please allow others the right to do as they are led, even in you hearts and minds.


Isaiah 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
 
Jul 27, 2011
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Daniel, Hananiah, Mishael, and Azariah, had their names changed by the prince of the eunuchs to, Belteshazzar, Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego. Then i see most only calling Daniel by his original name. When i speak about our Lord and Savior, i call Him Jesus. it doesn't seem to me that people calling Him by other names is being holier than thou, that is their respect to our Lord and Savior. Maybe people that call Him by the other names, are trying to give Jesus the respect and honor He deserves, and not to be puffed up. Before we try deflating another, we should look harder where they might be coming from.
 
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danschance

Guest
Daniel, Hananiah, Mishael, and Azariah, had their names changed by the prince of the eunuchs to, Belteshazzar, Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego. Then i see most only calling Daniel by his original name. When i speak about our Lord and Savior, i call Him Jesus. it doesn't seem to me that people calling Him by other names is being holier than thou, that is their respect to our Lord and Savior. Maybe people that call Him by the other names, are trying to give Jesus the respect and honor He deserves, and not to be puffed up. Before we try deflating another, we should look harder where they might be coming from.
Sometimes I pray to "Lord Sabbaoth" but I mostly pray to Jesus. I started this thread to counter th claims by some that "Jesus" is a pagan name and we should only call Him by His true name. There is nothing wrong with calling Him Jesus.
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
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Sometimes I pray to "Lord Sabbaoth" but I mostly pray to Jesus. I started this thread to counter th claims by some that "Jesus" is a pagan name and we should only call Him by His true name. There is nothing wrong with calling Him Jesus.
Not everyone in the Messianic or Hebrew roots movements have such wacko ideas. I know some people who think the Greek name for Jesus comes from the word for Isis. It's clearly wrong. It's a transliteration used of Yehoshua. One book condemned the use of the words "God" and "Lord." I had a look at the book, and the author did not seem to know anything about linguistics or etymology. It was full of nonsense assertions. If a word vague resembled an ancient pagan word, it was condemned.

Btw, Jesus taught His disciples to pray to the Father in His name.
 
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chubbena

Guest
if your going to use hebrew, then translate the whole verse in hebrew, not just one name.

Your being hypocritical and offensive when yuo do this.

Psalms was written in hebrew, not in english and one word in hebrew.
Probably the first English translation was being careful (or disrespectful depending how one looks at it) replacing His name by the word "lord" and the other followed suit.
It's like when a foreigner comes among us with a hard to speak foreign name it would be odd to keep calling him "mister" when we finally learnt to speak his real name, although probably with a strange English accent.
 

Hizikyah

Senior Member
Aug 25, 2013
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Originally Posted by eternally-gratefull

if your going to use hebrew, then translate the whole verse in hebrew, not just one name.
Your being hypocritical and offensive when yuo do this.
Psalms was written in hebrew, not in english and one word in hebrew.



Probably the first English translation was being careful (or disrespectful depending how one looks at it) replacing His name by the word "lord" and the other followed suit.
It's like when a foreigner comes among us with a hard to speak foreign name it would be odd to keep calling him "mister" when we finally learnt to speak his real name, although probably with a strange English accent.
I have the preface of nearly every major translation, and most of them admit why this is done ancient tradition:

(but where did this tradition come from?)

The Pharisees:

Talmud - Mas. Yoma 39b
His brethren [that year] the priests forbore to mention the Ineffable Name (Yahweh) in pronouncing the [priestly] blessing.4 Our Rabbis taught: During the last forty years before the destruction of the Temple the lot [‘For the Lord’] did not come up in the right hand; nor did the crimson-coloured strap become white/"

The Encyclopedia Judaica, Volume 7 page 680
The personal name... written in the Hebrew Bible with the four consonants YHWH and is referred to as the "Tetragrammaton." At least until the destruction of the First Temple in 586 B.C.E. this name was regularly pronounced with its proper vowels, as is clear from the Lachish Letters, written shortly before that date. But at least by the third century B.C.E. the pronunciation of the name YHWH was avoided and Adonai,"the Lord,"was substituted for it.

Holman Christian Standard Bible - Preface
"The Tetragrammaton occurs 6,828 times in the Hebrew Bible. Nearly all English versions follow the ancient tradition of rendering the Divine name as “the Lord.” The King James Version makes only four exceptions (Exodus 6:3, Psalm 83:18, Isaiah 12:2, and Isaiah 26:4), where it renders the name as “Jehovah.” The first edition of the HCSB used “Yahweh” seventy-five times, and the 2009 revision increased the number to 476, although the ordinary rendering continues to be “the Lord.” One of the editors of the version has explained why the version uses “Yahweh” in the places where it does: We use it as the rendering of YHWH (which the Hebrew Bible editors first rendered as Adonai, “Lord”) whenever God’s “name” is being given (either explicitly, using the word “name,” or implicitly), when He is being identified (“I am Yahweh”), when He is being contrasted to other gods such as Baal, in certain repeated phrases such as “Yahweh the God of your fathers,” or when YHWH has been rendered by Yahweh in the immediate context. … our objective is to introduce to the contemporary church what is the most likely pronunciation of the divine name YHWH in the Hebrew Bible. We did not render the majority of occurrences of YHWH as Yahweh because our goal is not only to be accurate but to use an English style that is most familiar to people. Since most Christians today probably do not commonly speak of “Yahweh,” but rather of “the Lord,” we felt it would be insensitive to use Yahweh for YHWH in every case and would make the Bible seem too uncomfortable for most people."

Mattithyah 15:2-3, "Why do Your disciples transgress the traditions of the elders? For they do not wash their hands when they eat. But He answered, and said to them: And why do you transgress the Laws of Yahweh by your traditions?"

Yet no care for what Yahweh thinks...

Yeremyah 23:26-27, "How long will this be in the heart of the prophets who prophesy lies? Yes, they are prophets of the deceit of their own minds plan and scheme, to cause My people to forget My Name through their dreams, which they tell every man to his neighbor, just as their fathers have forgotten My Name for Baal."
 
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danschance

Guest
Probably the first English translation was being careful (or disrespectful depending how one looks at it) replacing His name by the word "lord" and the other followed suit.
It's like when a foreigner comes among us with a hard to speak foreign name it would be odd to keep calling him "mister" when we finally learnt to speak his real name, although probably with a strange English accent.
The pronunciation of YHWH has been lost to antiquity. Yehway may or may not be the correct pronunciation, no one knows. The bible translators insert the word Lord for in keeping with the word Adonai(Lord) and also with NT kurios (Lord).
 
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danschance

Guest
Not everyone in the Messianic or Hebrew roots movements have such wacko ideas. I know some people who think the Greek name for Jesus comes from the word for Isis. It's clearly wrong. It's a transliteration used of Yehoshua. One book condemned the use of the words "God" and "Lord." I had a look at the book, and the author did not seem to know anything about linguistics or etymology. It was full of nonsense assertions. If a word vague resembled an ancient pagan word, it was condemned.

Btw, Jesus taught His disciples to pray to the Father in His name.
Yes, I understand the HRM is far from a monolithic group. A balanced approach is always best.
 

Hizikyah

Senior Member
Aug 25, 2013
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The pronunciation of YHWH has been lost to antiquity. Yehway may or may not be the correct pronunciation, no one knows. The bible translators insert the word Lord for in keeping with the word Adonai(Lord) and also with NT kurios (Lord).
YHWH is the only Hebrew word we dont know how to pronounce? Seems there is no problem pronouncing the thousands of other Hebrew words.....Seeing as Yahweh wants us to call upon His Name and satan does not, satan must love this...

Zecharyah 13:9, "And I will bring the third part through the fire, and will refine them as silver is refined, and will try them as gold is tried. They will call with My Name, and I will hear them. I will say: It is My people! And they will say; Yahweh is my Strength!"

So saying " The bible translators insert the word Lord for in keeping with the word Adonai(Lord)" is proof of following pharisee law by the majority.

Talmud - Mas. Yoma 39b
His brethren [that year] the priests forbore to mention the Ineffable Name (Yahweh) in pronouncing the [priestly] blessing.4 Our Rabbis taught: During the last forty years before the destruction of the Temple the lot [‘For the Lord’] did not come up in the right hand; nor did the crimson-coloured strap become white/"

The Encyclopedia Judaica, Volume 7 page 680
The personal name... written in the Hebrew Bible with the four consonants YHWH and is referred to as the "Tetragrammaton." At least until the destruction of the First Temple in 586 B.C.E. this name was regularly pronounced with its proper vowels, as is clear from the Lachish Letters, written shortly before that date. But at least by the third century B.C.E. the pronunciation of the name YHWH was avoided and Adonai,"the Lord,"was substituted for it.