Ephesians 4:4
There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; 5One Lord, one faith, one baptism,
Could it be that the meaning of "one baptism" Paul is referring to here is defined properly as the baptism of the Holy Spirit that makes us one with the will of God the Father and Jesus Christ? One body,one Spirit,one hope,one Lord,one faith,one baptism.
John 17:22
And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one: 23I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.
Ephesians 1:
13In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise, 14Which is the earnest of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, unto the praise of his glory.
After receiving the promise of the Holy Spirit we share in "one baptism", "one faith" ect,.
I don't see this "one baptism" as meaning from the immersion in water type of baptism as this kind of baptism is not common practice to all believers of Jesus Christ in Christendom.
1Corinthians 1:17
For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.
What happens to a believer of Jesus Christ who has not been immersed in water (one form of baptism) but who calls on the name of the LORD? Does your logic say they will go to hell because they were not baptized with water? If so do you not make void these words? "For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved."
Ephesians 2:8
For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: 9Not of works, lest any man should boast.
Proper interpretation/exegesis is words are to be taken literally unless something in the context shows otherwise.
"ONE" is literally one
"BAPTISM" would be a literal immersion.
Nothing in the context show either "one" or "baptism" is used in a figurative way, so why would baptism here be anything other than a literal immersion in water, as with the eunuch in Acts 8?
Since there is literally "ONE" baptism in effect then the baptism of 1 Cor 1:14,16 would be the same baptism of 1 Cor 12:13.
In 1 Cor 1:14,16 Paul baptized some of the Corinthians himself and Paul being a human could only administer water baptism, as Christ commissioned disciples (humans) in the great commission to go, teach and baptize, Mt 28:19,20. Phillip the disciple water baptized the eunuch. To get around the necessity of water baptism, some create a second, spirit baptism and violate EPh 4:5 that says there is
ONE baptism. This point gets overlooked, dismissed over and over by the anti-water baptism crown so I started this thread to make the error of creating two baptisms stand out.
I have looked through this thread this morning and unless I missed it no one has yet to address 1 Cor 1:14,16 and 1 Cor 12:13 being ONE baptism and not two different baptisms.
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The "not of works" in Eph 2:9 refers to works of merit and not obedience to God. In Acts 10:47,48 God commanded water baptism to the Gentiles and the Gentiles must obey that command to be saved. No obedient works in submitting to God's commands = doing unrighteousness/lost.