But now apart from the law the righteousness of God has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. [SUP]22[/SUP] This righteousness is given through faith in 8 Jesus Christ to all who believe.[Romans 3:21]
Man cannot be righteous, no matter what he does.
Human acts of righteousness are like filthy rags to God.[Isa 64:6].
Not one of us on this thread, is disputing this..
(This does not mean that we should not do good deeds.
A believer does good deeds because he is saved, not to be saved. [Eph 2:10]
This also does not mean that faith, repentance and baptism are works. These are commanded.
This definitely does not mean that a believer cannot lose his salvation.)
However, the believer is covered by the Righteousness of God.
When God looks at a believer, he sees the Righteousness of Jesus,
for we have put on Christ[Gal 3:27]
So the "bent-to-self" human nature is hidden in Christ,
but not dead. It never died 2000 years ago with Christ(as you are saying),
for that was not the purpose of Jesus' sacrifice.
If it had died 2000 years ago, why does it pop out it's ugly head
and try to take control of believers?
When believers do not let the Spirit take control,
the old man ("bent-to-self" human nature) resurfaces.
So it's a constant fight; but the Holy Spirit assures us victory.
Therefore we must consider ourselves already seated in the heavenly realms.[Eph 2:6]
So, what was the purpose of Jesus' death?
There is no difference between Jew and Gentile,[SUP]23[/SUP]for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,[SUP]24[/SUP]and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus.[SUP]25[/SUP]God presented Christ as a sacrifice of atonement, 9 through the shedding of his blood - to be received by faith.[Romans 3:22-25]
First read the context. It is about the Jew and Gentile, although it is applicable to us.
How is this verse applicable to us?
Because all have sinned. Do you see the intransitive verb?
This is not talking about some "condition," but a willful act (or thought).
What was the purpose of Jesus' death?
He died for our sins, as a sacrifice of atonement (propitiation).
Was Jesus innocent? No one can deny that.
Conclusion: An innocent man (Jesus) took our place, and died to atone for our sins.
This is how God can justify the ungodly (your title)
How can God justify the ungodly and still maintain the integrity of his Law?(your title)
Well, God is the Law. He is the Judge.
Let us first worry about our integrity.
I'm not saying that you are judging God with this question.
We've got to be prepared to answer arrogant unbelievers (such as Muslims), who always throw senseless questions at believers, like this one.
But we must realize that people who ask such questions are not seeking solutions.
So no answer will satisfy them.
If you expect an answer from me, please frame your question correctly,
because you are struggling to answer it yourself.