Why the king james?

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KJV1611

KJV1611

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Nov 23, 2013
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#1,381
trofimus said:
I think you missed my point.
My point was, that Jesus was quoting Scripture (not paraphrasing it), so His version of Hosea 6:6 differs from your KJV version.
There is no need to elaborate some possible explanations, how both version could be true. He quoted Old Testament and it differs from what you have in your "perfect and inspired" Old Testament.

The same with other verses.

Difference between "created" and "made" is that created is something from nothing, made is something from something (for example man from dust).
But it again is not my point, my point is the difference between what Jesus quotes as a Scripture and what you have in your Bible.

And to your question what is biblical Greek good for - exactly for this. For the control if your translation is good or bad.
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That's typical of people who don't beilive the bible. Nothing whatsoever indicates that Jesus was quoting or parphrasing Hosea, yet you some how know beyond the shadow of a doubt that he was. Look if you don't believe the bible word for word you'll never understand it.
 
KJV1611

KJV1611

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#1,382
Nov 23, 2013
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eternally-gratefull said:
I am still waiting to be shown how an aorist or perfect tense verb can be properly translated in a word for word bible in english, Since English does not have equivalent words or grammar laws to translate them with.
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And you call us idol worshippers. Don't you know the word of God isn't bound by language?
 
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eternally-gratefull

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#1,383
#1,383
KJV1611 said:
Abraham could not have been justified - made righteous in the sight of God by his works because that contradicts Galatians 2:16 and the rest of the bible.

Galatians 2:16 KJV
Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

So we can throw out the definition as being "made righteous" we can also eliminate justified in printing so we are left with justified as in having done something for a legitimate reason. Abraham's faith was justified (made legitimate) by offering up Isaac.
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James did not say he was made righteous or justified (same meaning) by his works.

James was stating a fact. Abrahams faith that saved him was not dead. it was alive, it worked.

Faith works!!

Try context for once.. It can help.
 
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eternally-gratefull

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#1,384
#1,384
KJV1611 said:
And you call us idol worshippers. Don't you know the word of God isn't bound by language?
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It is if we use the english text only.

It is bound by the language itself.

Also. Why did you attack my post. instead of responding to the post. and show me how those verbs would be properly translated?

DO you not have an answer? If not. We can move on, because you just proved me right.
 
trofimus

trofimus

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#1,385
Aug 17, 2015
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#1,385
KJV1611 said:
That's typical of people who don't beilive the bible. Nothing whatsoever indicates that Jesus was quoting or parphrasing Hosea, yet you some how know beyond the shadow of a doubt that he was. Look if you don't believe the bible word for word you'll never understand it.
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I believe the Bible, but I dont believe you and your "KJV only" thing.

John 12:38 That the saying of Esaias the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spake,
Lord, who hath believed our report? and to whom hath the arm of the Lord been revealed?

Romans 10:16 But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Esaias saith,
Lord, who hath believed our report?

Isaiah 53:1 Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the LORD revealed?

Why did KJV translators dropped the "Lord" word? And dont ask me how I know its quotation from Isaiah, its really clear.
 
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KJV1611

KJV1611

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#1,386
Nov 23, 2013
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Willie-T said:
Sadly, you are so mistaken. All sorts of people in those days did just what Abe did, they offered up their children as sacrifices to a variety of gods. It was a common practice, and surely something quite familiar and well-known to Abe. That kind of an act on his part proved nothing. Everyone else was doing the same thing all across the land. (Why do you think we have no record of him saying, "You want me to do WHAT !?!?!?")

What we are told was Abe's distinction, and what proved to be "righteousness" for him is that "he believed this particular God."

It wasn't the performance of a common and accepted "action" (ritual), it was his relational understanding of who this particular God was that made all the difference.
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Abraham wasn't proved to be righteous by offering up Isaac, his faith was proven to be true faith by offering up Isaac. By the way, God didn't ask Abraham to sacrifice his son:confused: God never asks us to sacrifice human lives, he asked Abraham to offer his son as a burnt offering.
 
KJV1611

KJV1611

Banned
#1,387
Nov 23, 2013
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#1,387
eternally-gratefull said:
James did not say he was made righteous or justified (same meaning) by his works.

James was stating a fact. Abrahams faith that saved him was not dead. it was alive, it worked.

Faith works!!

Try context for once.. It can help.
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I'm glad you agree with me...like I said, the NIV is WRONG. Abraham was not considered righteous for offering Isaac.

[h=1]James 2:21New International Version (NIV)[/h]21 Was not our father Abraham considered righteous for what he did when he offered his son Isaac on the altar?
 
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eternally-gratefull

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#1,388
#1,388
KJV1611 said:
I'm glad you agree with me...like I said, the NIV is WRONG. Abraham was not considered righteous for offering Isaac.

James 2:21New International Version (NIV)

21 Was not our father Abraham considered righteous for what he did when he offered his son Isaac on the altar?
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It says the same thing the kjv said, only in different terms. It still makes what I said true.

You need to pick another reason. this one has been proven a false reason, because the NIV is not false.
 
KJV1611

KJV1611

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#1,389
Nov 23, 2013
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#1,389
eternally-gratefull said:
It is if we use the english text only.

It is bound by the language itself.

Also. Why did you attack my post. instead of responding to the post. and show me how those verbs would be properly translated?

DO you not have an answer? If not. We can move on, because you just proved me right.
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I'm not attacking your post, I'm just saying God is not bound by language. I don't know anyting about Greek aortist and perfect tense verbs, but I do know that know any concept expressed in Greek can be expressed in English.
 
KJV1611

KJV1611

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#1,390
Nov 23, 2013
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#1,390
trofimus said:
I believe the Bible, but I dont believe you and your "KJV only" thing.

John 12:38 That the saying of Esaias the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spake,
Lord, who hath believed our report? and to whom hath the arm of the Lord been revealed?

Romans 10:16 But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Esaias saith,
Lord, who hath believed our report?

Isaiah 53:1 Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the LORD revealed?

Why did KJV translators dropped the "Lord" word? And dont ask me how I know its quotation from Isaiah, its really clear.
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I'm sorry I don't know what you're asking, where was Lord dropped.. which verse do you think is wrong?
 
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eternally-gratefull

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#1,391
#1,391
KJV1611 said:
I'm not attacking your post, I'm just saying God is not bound by language. I don't know anyting about Greek aortist and perfect tense verbs, but I do know that know any concept expressed in Greek can be expressed in English.
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And you just proved you do not know.

In a word for word translation,. an aorist tense or perfect tense verb can not be properly translated to English. There are no English equivalents..

That is my point, to translate it into English you would need to translate it with a phrase, or expanded translation. not a word for word.
 
KJV1611

KJV1611

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#1,392
Nov 23, 2013
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#1,392
eternally-gratefull said:
It says the same thing the kjv said, only in different terms. It still makes what I said true.

You need to pick another reason. this one has been proven a false reason, because the NIV is not false.
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Was Abraham considered righteous because he offer Isaac?
 
Willie-T

Willie-T

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#1,395
Feb 7, 2015
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#1,395
KJV1611 said:
Abraham wasn't proved to be righteous by offering up Isaac, his faith was proven to be true faith by offering up Isaac. By the way, God didn't ask Abraham to sacrifice his son:confused: God never asks us to sacrifice human lives, he asked Abraham to offer his son as a burnt offering.
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You play with words like a child. LOL

Let me set you on fire, and let's see if you can find any distinction.
 
trofimus

trofimus

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Aug 17, 2015
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KJV1611 said:
I'm sorry I don't know what you're asking, where was Lord dropped.. which verse do you think is wrong?
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Isaiah 53:1, of course.

Again:

John 12:38 That the saying of Esaias the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spake,
Lord, who hath believed our report? and to whom hath the arm of the Lord been revealed?

Romans 10:16 But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Esaias saith,
Lord, who hath believed our report?

Isaiah 53:1 Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the LORD revealed?
 
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KJV1611

KJV1611

Banned
#1,397
Nov 23, 2013
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#1,397
eternally-gratefull said:
And you just proved you do not know.

In a word for word translation,. an aorist tense or perfect tense verb can not be properly translated to English. There are no English equivalents..

That is my point, to translate it into English you would need to translate it with a phrase, or expanded translation. not a word for word.
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Why are you so hung up on the letter? The word of God is in the spirit not the letter. What difference does it make if I say For God so loved the world he gave his only begotton son or if I say God's love for humanity was so great that he gave the only son that he sired. Whats the difference, both are the word of God, both say the same thing. The words don't matter as long as they convey the concept.
 
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PeacefulWarrior

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#1,398
#1,398
KJV1611 said:
I'm not attacking your post, I'm just saying God is not bound by language. I don't know anyting about Greek aortist and perfect tense verbs, but I do know that know any concept expressed in Greek can be expressed in English.
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If you believe your own words here, why do you bind God to the KJV only?
If God is not bound by language -- this supports the argument that the KJV is not the ONLY trustworthy Bible.

KJV1611 said:
Why are you so hung up on the letter? The word of God is in the spirit not the letter. What difference does it make if I say For God so loved the world he gave his only begotton son or if I say God's love for humanity was so great that he gave the only son that he sired. Whats the difference, both are the word of God, both say the same thing. The words don't matter as long as they convey the concept.
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Again, your words here support the argument that the KJV is NOT the ONLY trustworthy Bible.

You are now stating, what we have been stating all along.
 
kodiak

kodiak

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Mar 8, 2015
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#1,399
KJV1611 said:
Abraham wasn't proved to be righteous by offering up Isaac, his faith was proven to be true faith by offering up Isaac. By the way, God didn't ask Abraham to sacrifice his son:confused: God never asks us to sacrifice human lives, he asked Abraham to offer his son as a burnt offering.
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So you don't believe that is a sacrifice?
 
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