Ok, I hear you. But I beg to differ.
I know, you're still refusing context
for your point.
The whole point of Romans is contained in Chapter 1 verse 8.
When you understand this verse, then you can see Paul's overall intent.
I'd put forward that Romans 1:16 is more in that position than 1:8. Brother, there is no need to imply that I don't understand a verse, that is quite an underhanded remark. I have been quite forward about your mistake: Romans 1:16 is not saying what you are
making it to say. This has been clearly shown you.
The key thing to remember is that Romans was written circa AD58, and the judgement of apostate Judea would begin in AD67.
Actually they were already under judgment.
Paul was a very complex writer though, so it is dangerous to pin him down to one thing.
Seriously? That is descriptive
of exactly what you've been doing all along! Thus some have sought to correct you on your insistence that the epistle is primarily for the Jews when Paul said none of this whatsoever, nor has it ever been implied.
Romans hits many targets, but be absolutely clear about this, Paul's first and absolutely main, indeed sole target in one sense, is apostate Jewry.
See? There you go, by your own rule, and breaking it,
"pinning Paul down to one thing."
Brother, with all due respect, none of Rom,ans 1:16 proves your point, and it isn't there. Not going another round with you on this as even your own rules show yourself to be the one breaking them.
You can get your last word in, there is no need to convince a man with proper Scripture context as when doing so would only serve to convince him against his own will.