What he did say was his flesh had to die SO HE BE SAVED IN THE DAY OF JESUS.
He wasn't 'once saved always saved'. If he was, there would have been no need for him to 'do' something in order for him to be saved when Jesus comes back. God would just have to spank his little bottom and his salvation would not be in jeopardy. But instead Paul says his flesh must die in order for him to be saved when Jesus comes back. He had to repent in order to be saved when Jesus comes back.
Also, notice how this man is being condemned by the law of Moses that the church is so sure is not for the gentiles or the church:
"[/COLOR]11‘If there is a man who lies with his father’s wife, he has uncovered his father’s nakedness; both of them shall surely be put to death, their bloodguiltiness is upon them."-Leviticus 20:11
He wasn't 'once saved always saved'. If he was, there would have been no need for him to 'do' something in order for him to be saved when Jesus comes back. God would just have to spank his little bottom and his salvation would not be in jeopardy. But instead Paul says his flesh must die in order for him to be saved when Jesus comes back. He had to repent in order to be saved when Jesus comes back.
Also, notice how this man is being condemned by the law of Moses that the church is so sure is not for the gentiles or the church:
"[/COLOR]11‘If there is a man who lies with his father’s wife, he has uncovered his father’s nakedness; both of them shall surely be put to death, their bloodguiltiness is upon them."-Leviticus 20:11
The Church of Corinthians the Apostle Paul wrote to was very carnal (proofing the existance of carnal Christians). Nowhere will you find one example in which a person lost his salvation.
"But instead Paul says his flesh must die in order for him to be saved when Jesus comes back." No, it doesn't say that.
"[FONT="]To deliver such an one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus." (Verse 5)[/FONT]
God bless