Who taught you this false teaching---that only "the church" will be gathered and all the OT saints will not?
"Rapture" was not promised to OT saints, "resurrection" ['to stand again on the earth'] was (see Dan12:13, for starters; see also Job19:25-27 and Martha's words in John 11:24--THIS was
no mystery to OT saints, they understood it quite well--because it is what has been "prophesied" for them).
Do you really believe that the OT saints and the saints that will suffer at the hands of the man of sin will not be a part of the first resurrection?
I've stated in either this thread or another, that Rev20:6 states:
--"Blessed and holy
is the one having
A PART [G3313 - meros ] in the first resurrection..." (and I've listed the parts of "the resurrection OF LIFE" that do not all occur at the same precise moment [singular moment in time], this is ascertained by viewing the chronology of when they do take place)...
--I've pointed out how the Two Witnesses are "resurrected" at the time of the 6th Trumpet/2nd Woe (well before the end of the trib / 2nd Coming to the earth)
--I've shown how 1Cor15:23 says, "[re: resurrection] but
EACH [G1532 - Hekastos - (<---this word means, 'of more than two')] IN HIS OWN ORDER" (showing there is a SEQUENCE/ORDER to it; that there doesn't remain only ONE)...
--I've pointed out how in both Scripture and in nature, there is more than a singular "harvest" (thus also more than a singular "firstfruit" [I've shown how the 144,000 are "firstfruit" of the WHEAT harvest, where "TWO loaves" and "baken WITH LEAVEN" are involved])
--I've pointed out how that, according to Scripture, the "Bride/Wife [SINGULAR]" (pertaining to "the MARRIAGE" itself) is not the "TEN [or FIVE] Virgins [PLURAL]" (pertaining to "the wedding FEAST/SUPPER," which is distinct from "the MARRIAGE" in both purpose and timing)… IOW, Jesus is NOT coming to "MARRY TEN [or even FIVE] VIRGINS [PLURAL]"!! (that is twisted doctrine!
)
--I've pointed out how the word "
THIS corruptible" and "
THIS mortal" (1Cor15:51-54) speaks SPECIFICALLY of "the Church which is His body" ('the
DEAD IN Christ' and the 'we which are
ALIVE and remain unto') not regarding all ppl of all times; and not all saints of all times... but "THIS" [particular BODY of persons]
--I've pointed out the chronology issues
--I've pointed out the unbiblical, made-up definition ppl tend to think when viewing the phrase
"the Day of the Lord" (2Th2:2)… and have covered its ARRIVAL point-in-time (the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR; 1Th5:2-3 / Matt24:4 / Mk13:5]" of MANY MORE "birth PANGS [PLURAL]" that will FOLLOW ON from there; it is NOT "ONE and done!"); along with its RELATED phrase (speaking of the SAME "time period") "IN THAT DAY" and how both of these phrases are used in 2Th1&2, PROVING it is an extended TIME PERIOD *PRIOR TO* Christ's Own Personal RETURN/Presence-to the earth--Paul in 2Th2 is NOT saying the Thessalonians were distraught over believing "JESUS IS PRESENT" or "the RAPTURE IS PRESENT" or "the KINGDOM IS PRESENT<" but instead [incorrectly being convinced "the DOTL IS PRESENT" (which was a reasonable thing for them to be convinced of, due to their PRESENT, ONGOING, VERY NEGATIVE circumstances they were ENDURING, 2Th1:4. THIS is what they thought "IS PRESENT" (according to 2Th2:2), not other things ppl incorrectly surmise about this verse.
They did not believe the EVENT of v.1 "IS PRESENT" ("IS PRESENT [PERFECT INDICATIVE]" IS the phrase in verse 2... the verse being misconstrued, and resulting in something other than what Paul was actually conveying here)
I have been away from this discussion for a while, but I see it has only gone farther down the path of foolishness and ignorance about the truth of what is to come.