nephilim

[garee]

It's not a parable. His flesh was not typified as sinful. Jesus' flesh was not corrupted.

The Bible says it must be typified as sinful in order to put away sin in the flesh .Something the letter of the law (the killer) could not do.

Its the law of faith believing that does profit.

I would chose to do what the law could not do . The faith principle. Now you see men (walking by sight) now you do not see me walking by faith.

Romans 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:

Not a parable? Where do we find this flesh and blood so that we can eat and drink?

How does that answer my question? Why did he say if I disappear out of sight out of mind . . . and then what would a person do?

Hope bread literally does become flesh and blood. .Catholicism ?

In order to find the spiritual understanding in parables which without Christ spoke not. We must compare it to the same kind. The foundation is found in the Old testament. The gospel key unlocks the understanding . Don't be afraid to dig not every thing is on the surface . . . never know might find a pearl.

2 Samuel 23:16-18 Easy-to-Read Version (ERV) So the Three Heroes[a] fought their way through the Philistine army and got some water from the well near the city gate in Bethlehem. They took it to David, but he refused to drink it. He poured it on the ground as an offering to the Lord. David said, “Lord, I cannot drink this water. It would be like drinking the blood of the men who risked their lives for me.” This is why David refused to drink the water. The Three Heroes did many brave things like that.

I would say the parable "drink blood" as it relates to men simply gives us the gospel. Christ pouring out His unseen Spirit as if it was flesh in jeopardy of his own unseen Spirit life. .

Its why David poured it out according to the commandment so that it could return to the lifeess dust it came from .. it is the Spirit that gives spirit life the flesh propfits for Zero. Its why Jesus blood was poured out so he might give glory to the unseen fathjer.

 

[reneweddaybyday]

After that parable Jesus used his corrupted flesh

Again ... Jesus' flesh was not corrupted. His flesh was not like mine or yours as He was not begotten in the image/likeness of descendants of Adam.

check out these verses:

John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

John 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

John 3:18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

The words "only begotten" are translated from the Greek word monogenḗs ...

3439 monogenḗs (from 3441 /monos, "one-and-only" and 1085/génos, "offspring, stock") – one-and-only; "one of a kind" – "one (monos) of a class, genos" (the only of its kind).​

The Lord Jesus Christ was the one-and-only, one of a kind, the only of its kind.

(all flesh is corrupted )

With the exception of the Lord Jesus Christ, in agreement with this statement.

Sort of like peekaboo. Now you see me, now you do not.

utter nonsense

 

[garee]

With the exception of the Lord Jesus Christ, in agreement with this statement.

All flesh is corrupted. Even some did we don't know Christ after the flesh any more forevermore. The now you see me now you don't remains now you don't and never will. The one time demonstration of the unseen Spirit is over.

Its real simply God is not a man as us. He is the faithful Creator not a creature.

2 Corinthians 5:16 Wherefore henceforth know we no man after the flesh: yea, though we have known Christ after the flesh, yet now henceforth know we him no more.

 

[Dino246]

The Bible says it must be typified as sinful in order to put away sin in the flesh .Something the letter of the law (the killer) could not do. ...

Romans 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:

It appears that you have interpreted the word "likeness" to mean "typified". That isn't what it means. "Likeness" means "looks like", not "represents" or "typifies". The physical flesh-and-blood body of Jesus looked like the physical flesh-and-blood body of other humans. It doesn't mean His flesh was corrupted.

Not a parable? Where do we find this flesh and blood so that we can eat and drink?

The problem is to be that you don't understand what a "parable" is. Not everything that refers to or represents something else is a parable.

Hope bread literally does become flesh and blood. .Catholicism ?

It would really help if you would write coherent sentences. I don't see why you think it important to share your thoughts here, but you don't consider it important to write in a way that others can understand. Take the class. Learn the skills.

In order to find the spiritual understanding in parables which without Christ spoke not. We must compare it to the same kind. The foundation is found in the Old testament. The gospel key unlocks the understanding . Don't be afraid to dig not every thing is on the surface . . . never know might find a pearl.

Christ DID speak without using parables, but you have taken His statement out of its context and incorrectly applied it to every statement He made.

A simple question for you: In John 16:28, when Jesus said, "I came forth from the Father, and am come into the world: again, I leave the world, and go to the Father. ," was it a parable?

I would say the parable "drink blood" as it relates to men simply gives us the gospel. Christ pouring out His unseen Spirit as if it was flesh in jeopardy of his own unseen Spirit life.

Again, you're using the word "parable" where you should be using the word "metaphor" or some other term. The statement, "drink blood" is not a parable.

 

[Dino246]

Its real simply God is not a man as us. He is the faithful Creator not a creature.

Nobody is claiming that God, in His fullness, is merely human, yet you keep arguing against that claim. Just stop.

Jesus Christ IS fully man (which is different that merely man). If He were not, the sacrifice that He made would be meaningless and ineffectual.

 

[Scribe]

[QUOTE="Every scholar does NOT recognize that they are men in Genesis 6. Where did you get that nonsense?[/QUOTE]

I think you misunderstood my statement. For all these centuries everyone who has written about Matt 24:37-38 interprets it as Jesus referring to the activity of people in the days of Noah. And of course, they would be correct. Now we assume Jesus was referencing something in the bible about the activity of people in the days of Noah, that there is something in the scripture Jesus is talking about that we can look and read for ourselves to confirm what people were doing in the days of Noah regarding this marrying and giving in marriage of which he speaks and of course we find it only in this passage in Gen 6. If this is the scripture Jesus is referring to and it is assumed that the disciples understood Jesus as talking about what people were doing in the days of Noah then we are thereby concluding that Jesus interpreted sons of god as people and not fallen angels. Otherwise, you would have to interpret it as Jesus saying that in the last days before the end comes, as in the days of Noah, Angels will be taking wives again like they did before the flood, and yet no one interprets these statements of Jesus as referring to angels do they? I look forward to an intelligent answer concerning how to interpret these statements of Jesus in Matt 24:37-38. 1) was he referring to a scripture in the bible or just making a statement that you cannot reference in the scriptures concerning the days of Noah? 2) If he was referring to something in Gen what scriptures was he referring to that speak of people marrying in the days of Noah?

 

[garee]

Nobody is claiming that God, in His fullness, is merely human, yet you keep arguing against that claim. Just stop.

Jesus Christ IS fully man (which is different that merely man). If He were not, the sacrifice that He made would be meaningless and ineffectual.

The Son of man is fully man .The Son of God, Christ is fully God .

The Son of man is merely human. Just like any other that has the power of God in them not of them .

2 Corinthians 4:7 But we have this treasure in earthen vessels, that the excellency of the power may be of God, and not of us.

God is not a man in any way shape or form .We do not know Christ after the rudiments of this corrupted world

One is good, God.

Matthew 19:17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.

 

[Dino246]

The Son of man is fully man .The Son of God, Christ is fully God .

The Son of man is merely human. Just like any other that has the power of God in them not of them .

2 Corinthians 4:7 But we have this treasure in earthen vessels, that the excellency of the power may be of God, and not of us.

God is not a man in any way shape or form .We do not know Christ after the rudiments of this corrupted world

One is good, God.

Matthew 19:17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.

Consider these verses:

Matthew 9:6 But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins, (then saith he to the sick of the palsy,) Arise, take up thy bed, and go unto thine house.
Matthew 12:8 For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day.
Matthew 16:13 When Jesus came into the coasts of Caesarea Philippi, he asked his disciples, saying, Whom do men say that I the Son of man am?
Matthew 19:28 And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.

Matthew 14:33 Then they that were in the ship came and worshipped him, saying, Of a truth thou art the Son of God.
Mark 1:1 The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God;
Luke 1:35And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
John 1:49 Nathanael answered and saith unto him, Rabbi, thou art the Son of God; thou art the King of Israel.

There is ONE Jesus Christ, Who is the Son of Man AND the Son of God.

Abandon your heretical position and embrace the truth of Scripture.

 

[John146]

Consider these verses:

Matthew 9:6 But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins, (then saith he to the sick of the palsy,) Arise, take up thy bed, and go unto thine house.
Matthew 12:8 For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day.
Matthew 16:13 When Jesus came into the coasts of Caesarea Philippi, he asked his disciples, saying, Whom do men say that I the Son of man am?
Matthew 19:28 And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.

Matthew 14:33 Then they that were in the ship came and worshipped him, saying, Of a truth thou art the Son of God.
Mark 1:1 The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God;
Luke 1:35And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
John 1:49 Nathanael answered and saith unto him, Rabbi, thou art the Son of God; thou art the King of Israel.

There is ONE Jesus Christ, Who is the Son of Man AND the Son of God.

Abandon your heretical position and embrace the truth of Scripture.

I would add 1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

This man was made of bone and flesh after the resurrection.

 

[reneweddaybyday]

All flesh is corrupted.

Your continued eisegesis concerning the Lord Jesus Christ, the Lamb of God, without spot, without blemish, does not change Him into corrupted flesh.

If the Lord Jesus Christ had any spot or any wrinkle, our atonement has not been completed and we are still dead in trespasses and sin.

But we know that the Lord Jesus Christ was the perfect Lamb of God, without spot, without blemish. Well, I know. I'm not sure you are aware given your continued insistence that Jesus' flesh was corrupted.

Even some did we don't know Christ after the flesh any more forevermore.

gibberish ... I have no idea what you're saying here. Do you preview your post before you submit?

The now you see me now you don't remains now you don't and never will.

Not true ... we will see Him when we are made like Him.

1 John 3:2 Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is.

The one time demonstration of the unseen Spirit is over.

Its real simply God is not a man as us. He is the faithful Creator not a creature.

Then why do you continue to insist that Jesus' flesh was corrupt? He is the only begotten of the Father. You're saying God made Him corrupted. Even Adam was not made corrupted. The corruption did not occur until after the fall. Jesus never fell ... He never sinned, even though He was tempted in all points like as we are (Heb 4:15).

 

[garee]

Your continued eisegesis concerning the Lord Jesus Christ, the Lamb of God, without spot, without blemish, does not change Him into corrupted flesh.

If the Lord Jesus Christ had any spot or any wrinkle, our atonement has not been completed and we are still dead in trespasses and sin.

But we know that the Lord Jesus Christ was the perfect Lamb of God, without spot, without blemish. Well, I know. I'm not sure you are aware given your continued insistence that Jesus' flesh was corrupted.





gibberish ... I have no idea what you're saying here. Do you preview your post before you submit?





Not true ... we will see Him when we are made like Him.

1 John 3:2 Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is.





Then why do you continue to insist that Jesus' flesh was corrupt? He is the only begotten of the Father. You're saying God made Him corrupted. Even Adam was not made corrupted. The corruption did not occur until after the fall. Jesus never fell ... He never sinned, even though He was tempted in all points like as we are (Heb 4:15).

I did not say he sinned. God is not a man as us and neither is there any fleshly mediator that stands between God not seen and man seen . He has no beginning of days or end of spirit life. He cannot create another God . It would have a beginning.

Jesus did not partake in sinful flesh. His eternal Spirit as the Son of God dwelt in His body of death

.No power coming from it . Just as ours earthen bodies of death . we as sons of God walk after the spirit of faith Christ in us ..Just as the Son of God, Jesus .We know him no more after what the eyes see. The one time demonstration is over.

Why look for a fleshly Jesus after the temporal rather than walking by faith the unseen eternal? Is there more hope in what the eyes see?

According to Leviticus 17:11. The life of the flesh is in the blood but that life is not seen as spiritual. Drinking literal blood will not save anyone. It as lifeless and spiritless must be poured out and return to the dust to show the living spirit finished its work as a living sacrifice.

Is not God alone good? The Son of man Jesus refused to be called good.

Why do I think it was necessary that the Son of man have the same kind of body as any other human that aged in a process of dying?

Romans 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:

Why did he not appear as a theophany like with Melchedik in the old testament or like Moses and Elijah (not flesh and blood). Why literal flesh and blood typified as sinful .

 

[garee]

Consider these verses:

Matthew 9:6 But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins, (then saith he to the sick of the palsy,) Arise, take up thy bed, and go unto thine house.
Matthew 12:8 For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day.
Matthew 16:13 When Jesus came into the coasts of Caesarea Philippi, he asked his disciples, saying, Whom do men say that I the Son of man am?
Matthew 19:28 And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.

Matthew 14:33 Then they that were in the ship came and worshipped him, saying, Of a truth thou art the Son of God.
Mark 1:1 The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God;
Luke 1:35And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
John 1:49 Nathanael answered and saith unto him, Rabbi, thou art the Son of God; thou art the King of Israel.

There is ONE Jesus Christ, Who is the Son of Man AND the Son of God.

Abandon your heretical position and embrace the truth of Scripture.

Big difference between the eteranal Son of God not seen (God) and the Son of man temporal seen (man) .

One has a beginning the other has none. zip, zero.

God is not a man as us.. He is God like no other...

Mark 10:18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.

Not two, one God.

Two attributes working together as one demonstration of the Lamb of God who was slain from the foundation of the world .When God was working. The next day he rested the same sabbath we enrter.

 

[Dino246]

Big difference between the eteranal Son of God not seen (God) and the Son of man temporal seen (man) .

One has a beginning the other has none. zip, zero.

God is not a man as us.. He is God like no other...

Mark 10:18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.

Not two, one God.

Two attributes working together as one demonstration of the Lamb of God who was slain from the foundation of the world .When God was working. The next day he rested the same sabbath we enrter.

Unadulterated bafflegab.

Your position is clearly and completely contradicted by plain Scripture.

 

[garee]

Unadulterated bafflegab.

Your position is clearly and completely contradicted by plain Scripture.

God is not a man as us. (Job 9:33) Never was never could be.

In the same way there is no infallible fleshly mediator set between Him not seen and man seen . We walk by faith the eternal not seen.

That should be easy for you. Where do we find that the Son of man as to what the eyes see will come and perform another demonstration. Seeing one is not enough for some who would crucify him over and over to public shame. .

I see its and evil generation that seeks after what some call sign gifts. A confirming eye.as in do something perform a miracle that we can see then we will believe. The outward Jews made Jesus into a circus seal in that way.

Romans 8:1There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit. (Not seen)

2 Corinthians 5:16 Wherefore henceforth know we no man after the flesh: yea, though we have known Christ after the flesh, yet "now" henceforth know we him no more.

How long is henceforth know we him no more?

 

[Dino246]

God is not a man as us. (Job 9:33) Never was never could be.

In the same way there is no infallible fleshly mediator set between Him not seen and man seen . We walk by faith the eternal not seen.

1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus

I see its and evil generation that seeks after what some call sign gifts. A confirming eye.as in do something perform a miracle that we can see then we will believe. The outward Jews made Jesus into a circus seal in that way.

More irrelevant blather about sign gifts.

How long is henceforth know we him no more?

How long before you take a class in basic English?

 

[reneweddaybyday]

I did not say he sinned.

I did not say you said He sinned. What you fail to understand is that not only did Jesus not sin, but His flesh was not corrupt (as you have claimed, and continue to claim, over many pages of this thread).

Jesus was the Lamb of God without spot and without blemish ... His flesh was not corrupt (again as you continue to claim).

1 Peter 1:18-19 Forasmuch as ye know that ye were not redeemed with corruptible things, as silver and gold, from your vain conversation received by tradition from your fathers; But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot

without blemish =​

​

299 ámōmos (an adjective, derived from 1 /A "not" and 3470/mṓmos, "blemish") – properly, unblemished, without spot or blot (blight); (figuratively) morally, spiritually blameless, unblemished from the marring effects of sin.​

Jesus had no likeness or image of Adam in Him. Recall the words of Gabriel to Mary The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God (Luke 1:35).

without spot =​

​

784 áspilos (an adjective, derived from 1 /A "without" and 4696/spílos, "spot, blemish") – properly, unspotted (unstained); (figuratively) undefiled and hence fully acceptable.​

See also Deuteronomy 17:1 Thou shalt not sacrifice unto the LORD thy God any bullock, or sheep, wherein is blemish, or any evilfavouredness: for that is an abomination unto the LORD thy God.

For you to continue to insist that the Lamb of God had "corrupted flesh" is to infer that His offering was an abomination unto the Lord thy God.

God is not a man as us and neither is there any fleshly mediator that stands between God not seen and man seen .

1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

He has no beginning of days or end of spirit life. He cannot create another God . It would have a beginning.

Jesus did not partake in sinful flesh.

You keep insisting that Jesus' flesh was corrupt and then you say "Jesus did not partake in sinful flesh".

Hebrews 2:14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil

He took part of the same. He was flesh and blood, but He was not in the image/likeness of Adam. He is the only begotten of the Father.

His eternal Spirit as the Son of God dwelt in His body of death

The only reason He died is because He gave up His life.

John 10:17-18 Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.

.No power coming from it . Just as ours earthen bodies of death .

His body was not "just as ours".

Our bodies are made in the image/likeness of Adam.

Jesus was the only begotten of the Father.

we as sons of God walk after the spirit of faith Christ in us ..Just as the Son of God, Jesus .We know him no more after what the eyes see. The one time demonstration is over.

He had to come before we could get beyond the expectation of what He came to accomplish on behalf of mankind.

To continue to say "the one time demonstration is over" does not mean His birth, life, crucifixion, resurrection, ascension is meaningless. The whole Bible is about Him. Read and understand the meaning of the OT offerings were about and see that He was and is the perfect offering.

Why look for a fleshly Jesus after the temporal rather than walking by faith the unseen eternal? Is there more hope in what the eyes see?

Why do you have a problem with learning all that can be learned about the Lord Jesus Christ ... His birth, life, death, resurrection, ascension?

According to Leviticus 17:11. The life of the flesh is in the blood but that life is not seen as spiritual. Drinking literal blood will not save anyone. It as lifeless and spiritless must be poured out and return to the dust to show the living spirit finished its work as a living sacrifice.

No one in this thread has advocated "drinking literal blood".

Is not God alone good? The Son of man Jesus refused to be called good.

So? This in no way changes the fact that His flesh was not corrupted, despite your contention.

Why do I think it was necessary that the Son of man have the same kind of body as any other human that aged in a process of dying?

Romans 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:

There is nothing wrong with the law in and of itself. Romans 7:12 tells us Wherefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good. The problem is not the law. The problem is the weakness in the flesh of the descendants of Adam.

However, the Lord Jesus Christ, the Lamb without spot or blemish, the only begotten of the Father, overcame sin and through His perfect life in the flesh, He condemned sin in the flesh.

Why did he not appear as a theophany like with Melchedik in the old testament or like Moses and Elijah (not flesh and blood). Why literal flesh and blood typified as sinful .

In Rom 8:3, the word "likeness" is the Greek word homoíōma which means:

("resemblance"). homoíōma does not require one element of a comparison to be derived from the other; it can be wholly separate from it. Rather, 3667 (homoíōma) refers to a basic analogy (resemblance), not an exact copy.​

​

HELPS Word-studies (bold mine)​

 

[PennEd]

[QUOTE="Every scholar does NOT recognize that they are men in Genesis 6. Where did you get that nonsense?

I think you misunderstood my statement. For all these centuries everyone who has written about Matt 24:37-38 interprets it as Jesus referring to the activity of people in the days of Noah. And of course, they would be correct. Now we assume Jesus was referencing something in the bible about the activity of people in the days of Noah, that there is something in the scripture Jesus is talking about that we can look and read for ourselves to confirm what people were doing in the days of Noah regarding this marrying and giving in marriage of which he speaks and of course we find it only in this passage in Gen 6. If this is the scripture Jesus is referring to and it is assumed that the disciples understood Jesus as talking about what people were doing in the days of Noah then we are thereby concluding that Jesus interpreted sons of god as people and not fallen angels. Otherwise, you would have to interpret it as Jesus saying that in the last days before the end comes, as in the days of Noah, Angels will be taking wives again like they did before the flood, and yet no one interprets these statements of Jesus as referring to angels do they? I look forward to an intelligent answer concerning how to interpret these statements of Jesus in Matt 24:37-38. 1) was he referring to a scripture in the bible or just making a statement that you cannot reference in the scriptures concerning the days of Noah? 2) If he was referring to something in Gen what scriptures was he referring to that speak of people marrying in the days of Noah?[/QUOTE]


THE ABOVE IS ALL FROM SCRIBE. He didn't grab the original quote correctly***


No one has said that every human except Noah married or had sex with angels. What we have said is that ALL flesh had "corrupted itself" in some manner. That is PRECISELY what the text says. You are assuming to know what technologies the people of that era had. What does the fact that they married each other in their corrupted state have to do with anything?

The point Jesus was making was that because life seemed to exist as it always had, they didn't believe judgement would come. This idea of scoffing at those who preach repentance and a judgement to come is all over the Bible. Again. Neither here nor there as far as who the sons of God are in Gen 6.

As for the technology, we can only speculate. The CHILDREN of fallen angels and human women likely greatly corrupted humanity through sex, and their offspring having offspring and so on, but it may be more likely that they had some other technology to merge with fallen angels. We don't know. What we DO KNOW is that ALL flesh corrupted itself.

We are so programmed to think of ancient people as less intelligent, almost caveman type beings. This is stupid reasoning. As time goes by, UNLESS you DO believe in evolution, humanity is getting weaker. Yes we have accumulated, accelerated technologies to keep us alive a little longer, but we also have weaker immune systems, and a vast array of diseases and genetic disorders that seem to be constantly getting worse. Autistic children, allergies to everything from nuts to gluten to water, and so on, even lower sperm counts. This all makes sense when you think about the fall of creation and the world winding down.

Who would have thought 75 -100 yrs ago, outside of Sci-Fi, that we could manipulate the DNA of everything from plants to animals, to HUMANS, and worse yet, MIX THEM! I can post a thousand articles of us doing just that. Good luck trying to find some foods that don't say "partially produced with genetic engineering". They have even mixed human DNA with animals, and have created TRUE designer babies. So who knows what they were capable of with a higher intelligence, and fallen angels to teach them.

So with the understanding that this is speculative, I think mankind is again, AS IN THE DAYS OF NOAH, merge with fallen angels.
I think they do this with the mark of the beast. Somehow taking this mark forever alters what you are. You will no longer be fully human. This is why those that take the mark are forever irredeemable. It will change them on the DNA level.

There you have it! Have fun with it. But Jesus' comment in NO WAY verifies that the sons of God in Gen 6 are human. Read the thread to see that there is only ONE Biblical proof. They are fallen angels.

 

[garee]

For you to continue to insist that the Lamb of God had "corrupted flesh" is to infer that His offering was an abomination unto the Lord thy God.

Our invisible God is not a man as us, he has not beginning of days or end of Spirit life (not seen) He is from everlasting to everlasting.

He offered up the unseen Spirit, the eternal not seen . Not that seen the temporal used as a outward one time demonstration..

2 Corinthians 4:18 While we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen: for the things which are seen are temporal; but the things which are not seen are eternal.

An abomination is trying to and make that which could not profit flesh and blood (John 6) into something that could. Idol worship. Catholicism worshiping flesh and blood. . . . the temporal things seen. (No faith)

2 Corinthians 5:16 Wherefore henceforth know we no man after the flesh: yea, though we have known Christ after the flesh, yet now henceforth know we him no more

How long is henceforth know we him no more?

For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse: Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened. Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,And changed the glory of the uncorruptible God into an image made like to corruptible man, and to birds, and fourfooted beasts, and creeping things.Romans1: 18-23

Are clearly seen understood by using the proper prescription for rightly dividing 2 Corinthians 4:18.

The temporal used to give us the clear picture does not become the eternal . That is where the unbelieving Jew failed, turning things upside down making His understanding without effect.

You keep forgetting God is not a man. We do not know him after the rudiments of this world. . Corrupted flesh and blood could never enter the new order.

 

[Dino246]

Our invisible God is not a man as us, he has not beginning of days or end of Spirit life (not seen) He is from everlasting to everlasting.

Those words are from Hebrews 7, talking about Melchizedek, and the word "Spirit" is not there! You're adding to the word of God and corrupting the message of it!

You keep forgetting God is not a man. We do not know him after the rudiments of this world. . Corrupted flesh and blood could never enter the new order.

You keep implying wrongly that others are saying God is merely a man. NOBODY IS SAYING SO. JUST STOP ALREADY.

Jesus' flesh WAS NOT CORRUPTED. NOTHING in Scripture tells you that it was, but you keep claiming so. JUST STOP ALREADY.

 

[garee]

No one has said that every human except Noah married or had sex with angels. What we have said is that ALL flesh had "corrupted itself" in some manner. That is PRECISELY what the text says. You are assuming to know what technologies the people of that era had. What does the fact that they married each other in their corrupted state have to do with anything?

What does the fact that they married each other in their corrupted state have to do with anything other than the whole point they were unevenly yoked and the seed of Christ was being diminished. God used Noah family to reserve it..There where men of renown (believers) after the flood.

The point Jesus was making was that because life seemed to exist as it always had, they didn't believe judgement would come. This idea of scoffing at those who preach repentance and a judgement to come is all over the Bible. Again. Neither here nor there as far as who the sons of God are in Gen 6.

Are believers as new creatures human? Did we procreate with the angels that did not leave the first place of habitation?

1 John 3:1-2 Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not.Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is.