You still have not shown how the events in Acts 10 refutes my view point?
I have, more than once, but here it is again. First, the relevant bits of your earlier post:
If a person would look to the foundation of the doctrine of tongues (Isaiah 28) It as a assumed need would seem to have to do with faithless mankind's inability to believe in a God not seen.
So then those who desire as a need rather than believing all things written in the law and the prophets, they simply by their oral traditions of corrupted mankind called fathers, or kings refuse to hear the word of God. as it is written
They demonstrate their kind of religion as out of sight out of mind. Like that of Cain, mocking God not seen with stammering lips. God mocks them with stammering lips and as promised in Joel baptizes all the nations as a kingdom of priest, men and women, Jew and Gentile . A sign against unbelieving mankind .
The foundation of tongues, as you call it, is Isaiah 28:11-13:
"Very well then, with foreign lips and strange tongues
God will speak to this people, to whom he said, “This is the resting place, let the weary rest”; and, “This is the place of repose”—but they would not listen. So then, the word of the Lord to them will become:
Do this, do that, a rule for this, a rule for that; a little here, a little there—
so that as they go they will fall backward; they will be injured and snared and captured. (NIV)
The point is that God would
speak to unbelieving
Jews through other tongues. Because of their resistance to His truth,
the unbelievers would fall backwards, be injured and snared and captured. When Cornelius and his companions spoke in tongues in Acts 10, there were no unbelieving Jews present. The speech in tongues did not mock anyone; it glorified God, and it was the result of faith. The newly-believing (and tongues-speaking) gentiles did not fall backward or get snared and captured.
You conflate those speaking in tongues with those under God's judgment; that is incorrect. Those who speak in tongues are being used of God to speak the truth to the unbelievers, which is what happened in Acts 2, and which is consistent with Paul's statement, "tongues are a sign for unbelievers".
Paul tells us to "eagerly desire the gifts of the Spirit" which includes speaking in tongues. Why? So that the gifted individual may glory in the gift? No, although the gifted individual
is edified, and not in the incorrect "self-edification" way you espouse. Rather, God desires that we seek the gifts so that He is glorified and that His purposes (the edification of the Church and the extension of His kingdom to include new believers) are accomplished.