The Word became Flesh

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posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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You talk to much too.
Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,)
how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?
(Romans 7:1)

when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins, which were by the law,
did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto death.
But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held;
that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter.

(Romans 7:5)
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
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we gonna be tilling fields and manning cash registers in glory??
You've got it wrong. Man's work week applies to the earth, not the heavenly Jerusalem ("glory").

But there can be no doubt that God used six days of creation to give mankind a pattern for work and rest. And that is contained within the Fourth Commandment.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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You've got it wrong. Man's work week applies to the earth, not the heavenly Jerusalem ("glory").
i didn't think so. that was a rhetorical device ;)
so then you've only touched on a temporary aspect of the meaning of time & creation being mixed, not any eternal understanding of it, if you think the significance is limited to 'indicating man's work week'
there's more to it.
 
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i don't think there was any aging before Genesis 3, and i suspect the mortagenic factor ((the thing built-in to our DNA that inevitably causes cell decay)) is inherited through the father, not the mother. and so He was virgin-born, and His flesh saw no corruption

we may be talking about two different kinds of corruption, tho they are linked. flesh doesn't have to be 'sinful' in order to have no value in terms of achieving righteousness. to illustrate what i mean, consider this:

Therefore, if you died with Christ from the basic principles of the world, why, as though living in the world, do you subject yourselves to regulations — “Do not touch, do not taste, do not handle,” which all concern things which perish with the using — according to the commandments and doctrines of men? These things indeed have an appearance of wisdom in self-imposed religion, false humility, and neglect of the body, but are of no value against the indulgence of the flesh.
(Colossians 2:20-23)
doctrines and commandments concerning the flesh have an appearance of wisdom, but the humility is false, and even when dutifully carried out they are valueless in overcoming the will of the flesh - consider all the people who boast in sabbath-keeping, subjecting their bodies to restraints and regulations, concerning their minds with 'do not, work not, handle not' -- this gives their heart no rest. true rest is in spirit; true rest is a gift from God, to be sought and to be received, and once received to be rejoiced in and given in turn. in fact such people obsessed with their flesh and commandments regarding the flesh have no rest, forever working and worrying over whether their work is enough - work in the flesh? impossible that it can be enough. it profits nothing: it is the Spirit that gives life. not to be ignored, but certainly not to have any confidence in.

so Christ, who came in the flesh, in the likeness of sinful flesh, was in no way corrupted - yet even His own flesh, having no sin, counts for nothing in achieving life in the spirit. however it is not as though He needed to be regenerated in spirit - in Him is the fullness of the Holy Spirit, forever past, forever future. an eternal portrait in flesh and bone of the goal of we who believe, to be like Him, to be one even as He is One. the thing we wait for, which He will complete at His returning for us :)
Because of sin aging caused by corruption as in dying begins at birth. Sin is identified or reckoned by what the eyes see flesh. (the temporal)

Jesus did not sin but was used as a one time outward sign to the world to represent a sinner as "powerless " no way to save oneself .

Jesus said his flesh profits for nothing. What did profit was the unseen father pouring out Spirit life on the flesh of Jesus to prevent him from dying for 3 day.

He was kept for corrupting to death the end of suffering.. which is his spirit returning to the father and body to the spiritless clay it formed from.

No such thing a holiness of corrupted flesh and blood rather than holiness of the Spirit. The flesh profits for zero "no power"

Romans 1:3-5 King James Version (KJV) Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh; And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead: By whom we have received grace and apostleship, for obedience to the faith among all nations, for his name:

Death according to what the eyes see. Life that which the Spirit reveals.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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Jesus did not sin but was used as a one time outward sign to the world to represent a sinner as "powerless " no way to save oneself .
hmm a one-time sign that a sinner is powerless & can't save himself ?

why do we have 6 billion more of those signs being acted out daily here on earth?
this has been going on since the garden :unsure:
 

UnoiAmarah

Junior Member
Jul 28, 2017
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((re: Jeremiah 23:24)) it's a rhetorical question. the answer is obvious and implied: yes, yes He does fill heaven and earth. He Himself stretches it out and upholds it all with the word of His power, and in Him it has its being, and He holds it all together. without Him it is nothing.
Okay, let's say it is a rhetorical question, then let me raise this question, if you heard an audible voice that spoke the following words, "It's a rhetorical question", yet seeing no source for audible word then would you believe it was an auditory hallucination or have some other reason why it couldn't be the LORD speaking to you?

The reason I am asking is because a rhetorical question does mean the answer is obvious, unless one been taught on that subject matter then they wouldn't know that they didn't even know the scriptural basis for question being asked.

Of course, merely knowing that it avers to Genesis 1:1 doesn't mean that they know the answer to the question posed in Jeremiah 23:24 wherein it is written: "Do not I fill heaven and earth? saith the LORD." but that at least can say that they don't know that the don't know what scripture it refers too.

God created the heavens and the earth, no?
So if you believe that God created the heavens and the earth then would you not question why the LORD would say he filled in heaven and earth? (FYI-If the reason is because heaven is plural in Hebrew but that is only when referring unto the Gods that created them. Do we need to continue with the issue of whether it is a rhetorical question or not, but in case we do then just one last question in the spoiler that follows:
The expanse of space is not imaginary, saying he stretches it out upholds all the space with the word of his power, and that in him the expanse of space has its being, and he holds it all together is all well and fine. And without Him the expanse of space is nothing, but what is the physical matter of that forms the expanse of space. If space is nothing without Him, then what is space with Him?

So what is the physical matter that fills in the heaven and the earth?
 

UnoiAmarah

Junior Member
Jul 28, 2017
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why presume it is physical?

according to our best understandings of physics and our best abilities to observe and interpret what we see, upwards of 95% of the energy and mass that *should* be present in order for the cosmos to fit together and to function as it apparently does is completely and totally unknown and unknowable by any known physical means.
Why presume it is physical? Really???

presume the missing force is physical?
There isn't any presumption of it's being physical , it is only if you don't hold to the scripture it becomes imaginary.
 
Mar 28, 2016
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hmm a one-time sign that a sinner is powerless & can't save himself ?

why do we have 6 billion more of those signs being acted out daily here on earth?
this has been going on since the garden :unsure:
Yes, Jesus alone was crucified to show the work of the two .
 
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Okay, let's say it is a rhetorical question, then let me raise this question, if you heard an audible voice that spoke the following words, "It's a rhetorical question", yet seeing no source for audible word then would you believe it was an auditory hallucination or have some other reason why it couldn't be the LORD speaking to you?

The reason I am asking is because a rhetorical question does mean the answer is obvious, unless one been taught on that subject matter then they wouldn't know that they didn't even know the scriptural basis for question being asked.

Of course, merely knowing that it avers to Genesis 1:1 doesn't mean that they know the answer to the question posed in Jeremiah 23:24 wherein it is written: "Do not I fill heaven and earth? saith the LORD." but that at least can say that they don't know that the don't know what scripture it refers too.



So if you believe that God created the heavens and the earth then would you not question why the LORD would say he filled in heaven and earth? (FYI-If the reason is because heaven is plural in Hebrew but that is only when referring unto the Gods that created them. Do we need to continue with the issue of whether it is a rhetorical question or not, but in case we do then just one last question in the spoiler that follows:
The expanse of space is not imaginary, saying he stretches it out upholds all the space with the word of his power, and that in him the expanse of space has its being, and he holds it all together is all well and fine. And without Him the expanse of space is nothing, but what is the physical matter of that forms the expanse of space. If space is nothing without Him, then what is space with Him?

So what is the physical matter that fills in the heaven and the earth?
Its not God. We do not know him after the rudiments .
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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Because of sin aging caused by corruption as in dying begins at birth. Sin is identified or reckoned by what the eyes see flesh. (the temporal)
Your posts would be a lot more meaningful if you learned proper English grammar, sentence structure, and punctuation. Please take a class. Perhaps you did hate English when you were in school; so what? You can pray for the grace to enjoy it now.

Jesus did not sin but was used as a one time outward sign to the world to represent a sinner as "powerless " no way to save oneself .
Just... NO. Jesus did represent a sinner as "powerless". He was actually the Lamb of God who took away the sin of the world. He wasn't a representation, but the real thing.

Jesus said his flesh profits for nothing.
And what was the context in which Jesus said that? Do you really think that you are supposed to take Jesus' words out of their context and apply them willy-nilly to everything in the Bible?
 

UnoiAmarah

Junior Member
Jul 28, 2017
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Its not God. We do not know him after the rudiments .
Well, of course you don't because you follow the unseen which is eternal and not those things which are seen because those are rudiments of the world which are temporal right?

What I tell you in darkness, that speak ye in light: Matt 10:27
 

UnoiAmarah

Junior Member
Jul 28, 2017
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Please take a class. Perhaps you did hate English when you were in school;
Perhaps you did hate....??? I ain't going say anything cause me no form sentences good sometimes other than to say I could comprehend what he wrote just as well as I can yours....
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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So if you believe that God created the heavens and the earth then would you not question why the LORD would say he filled in heaven and earth?

so that they would seek Him and perhaps reach out for Him and find Him,
though He is not far from any one of us, 'for in Him we live and move and have our being.’

(Acts 17:27-28)
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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If space is nothing without Him, then what is space with Him?
the technical term is "void 1" ((as opposed to void 0))

it exists because He holds it in His mind -- or in quantum terms, it exists because He observes it
 
Mar 28, 2016
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Your posts would be a lot more meaningful if you learned proper English grammar, sentence structure, and punctuation. Please take a class. Perhaps you did hate English when you were in school; so what? You can pray for the grace to enjoy it now.


Just... NO. Jesus did represent a sinner as "powerless". He was actually the Lamb of God who took away the sin of the world. He wasn't a representation, but the real thing.


And what was the context in which Jesus said that? Do you really think that you are supposed to take Jesus' words out of their context and apply them willy-nilly to everything in the Bible?
Take what words out of context?

So then as eternal God he used a lamb as powerless. Either will work. Lamb just looks to the submissive natural needed for the lamb and the father to perform the demonstration

Jesus was referred as the lamb of God? Was he a real Lamb or a representation.

Is he a Lamb or a man or neither?

Those disciples who had no faith but looked to the temporal corrupted flesh walked away in unbelief . Peter was given the faith to believe the flesh of Christ profited not (nothing zero).That it was the unseen work of the father working with the Son pouring out his spirit on the corrupted flesh typified as sinful by what the eyes see. Flesh is a symbol for sin .

Peter said to whom should we go you have the words of the unseen father. No such thing as flesh of eternal life.

Jesus dared not to stand in the holy unseen place of the glory of the father. . he said God alone is our Good Master. We walk by faith according to the prescription. Then we can rightly divide the parables.

2 Corinthians 4:18 While we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen: for the things which are seen are temporal; but the things which are not seen are eternal.
 
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the technical term is "void 1" ((as opposed to void 0))

it exists because He holds it in His mind -- or in quantum terms, it exists because He observes it
Amen. It as the work of His faith as it is written. Faithfully declaring; let there be and there was . The kind of faith that pleases God.

Without his labor of love working in us, as substance created. We would have no desire to perform it. By grace through that work of faith in us he gives us new ears and eyes and a willing new heart .

If he has begun the good work in us He will finish it.

Luke 17:5 And the apostles said unto the Lord, Increase our faith.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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Take what words out of context?
Are you really unable to follow the logic and trace the words? The words you take out of context are Jesus' words, "The flesh profits for nothing."

So then as eternal God he used a lamb as powerless. Either will work. Lamb just looks to the submissive natural needed for the lamb and the father to perform the demonstration
You've misunderstood. The lamb is innocent, not "weak". The phrase in Scripture is "spotless lamb", not "wimpy lamb".

Jesus was referred as the lamb of God? Was he a real Lamb or a representation.

Is he a Lamb or a man or neither?
Jesus is actually a man, figuratively a lamb, and truly the Saviour. The "lamb" was a type, not a parable, and not a representation.

Those disciples who had no faith but looked to the temporal corrupted flesh walked away in unbelief . Peter was given the faith to believe the flesh of Christ profited not (nothing zero).That it was the unseen work of the father working with the Son pouring out his spirit on the corrupted flesh typified as sinful by what the eyes see. Flesh is a symbol for sin .
A moment before He died on the cross, Jesus said to the Father, "Into Your hands I commit My spirit." Jesus didn't "pour out his spirit on the corrupted flesh typified as sinful". Where do you get this tripe?

Jesus dared not to stand in the holy unseen place of the glory of the father. . he said God alone is our Good Master.
You have badly misinterpreted this passage.

We walk by faith according to the prescription. Then we can rightly divide the parables.
I don't see how one could divide a parable rightly when one doesn't understand what a parable is.
 

UnoiAmarah

Junior Member
Jul 28, 2017
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the technical term is "void 1" ((as opposed to void 0))

it exists because He holds it in His mind -- or in quantum terms, it exists because He observes it
I have never heard the term 'void 1', can you cite any reference to that term?

If you are trying to express it as being a 'vacuum', as in the vacuum of space, then it sounds like you are saying that the 'chashak' created the the heaven and the earth, if the physical expanse of space is 'was created by 'void 1' .

Space is not the absence of matter, it is the physical matter that is void of mass. Mass cannot exist without space and two objects of mass cannot occupy the same space at the same time, thus space is matter which is void of mass.

Hence space is the physical matter without mass created by the body of living light, or 'phasma'. The phasma was not created but proceeded forth from the eternal God, thus his word that He and His Father are one as spoken by the prophet. That is the reason that it is written that the Holy Ghost is image of the invisible God.

So yea, when the Holy Ghost said that he filled the heaven and the earth, His light did form the the expanse of space unless you think man was the LORD then of course the heaven and earth would be filled with nothing.
 

UnoiAmarah

Junior Member
Jul 28, 2017
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so that they would seek Him and perhaps reach out for Him and find Him,
though He is not far from any one of us, 'for in Him we live and move and have our being.’
Do you honestly believe that a mortal man can find the invisible LORD? Do you believe that He is a rewarder of those who diligently seek him? I wonder what that reward would be, humm?
 
Mar 28, 2016
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Do you honestly believe that a mortal man can find the invisible LORD? Do you believe that He is a rewarder of those who diligently seek him? I wonder what that reward would be, humm?
Most likely the reward is the faith that comes from hearing Him as he does work in us to both will and do His good pleasure. We are to work with him without murmuring.

Philippians 2:13-14 King James Version (KJV) Wherefore, my beloved, as ye have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling. For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure. Do all things without murmurings and disputings: