Merely aprioric, and baseless in evidence. It is simply accusation, without substantial foundation.
Let's look at a specific example.
Mark 16:9-20 - https://christianchat.com/bible-dis...e-been-tamped-with.190967/page-2#post-4194901
What evidence suggests that Mark 16:9-20 is not inspired of God text, and therefore should not be present in the preserved word of God that we can hold in our hands today? The NIV does not contain these words - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Mark+16:9&version=NIV
Why does the NIV choose to not include this passage? What mss evidence and logical thought process was used to leave it out. Please explain, I will listen to your explanation very carefully and weight it on its own merits.
Let's look at a specific example.
Mark 16:9-20 - https://christianchat.com/bible-dis...e-been-tamped-with.190967/page-2#post-4194901
What evidence suggests that Mark 16:9-20 is not inspired of God text, and therefore should not be present in the preserved word of God that we can hold in our hands today? The NIV does not contain these words - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Mark+16:9&version=NIV
Why does the NIV choose to not include this passage? What mss evidence and logical thought process was used to leave it out. Please explain, I will listen to your explanation very carefully and weight it on its own merits.