Is it a sin to drink alcohol
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the devotion to the kjv ruled that out 
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I don't know why you would think some statement about fruit being preserved fresh 100 years in Josephus would prove anything one way or another about drinking wine in Biblical times, But you should actually look up primary sources. Your source there is misleading. He leaves out the part about enjoying wine with song being forbidden after the Sanhedrin was disbanded.
Here is a quote from Sotah 48a according to
http://www.come-and-hear.com/sotah/sotah_48.html
" WHEN THE SANHEDRIN CEASED [TO FUNCTION], SONG CEASED FROM THE PLACES OF FEASTING; AS IT IS SAID, THEY SHALL NOT DRINK WINE WITH A SONG ETC "
Compare with Mishneh Sotah 9,11 according to https://www.sefaria.org/Mishnah_Sot...ide=Torat_Emet_357&with=Version Open&lang2=en
"When the Sanhedrin [highest court, charged with deciding cases and appeals that had national significance. It was comprised of 71 scholars who had received the full traditional rabbinical ordination, and its decisions fixed Jewish practice for subsequent generations.] ceased, song ceased from the places of feasting, as it is said, “They drink their wine without song” (Isaiah 24:9). "
The Sanhedrin was still around throughout the end of Acts and beyond until later in the first century. They tried our Lord and show up in Acts.
I hear they stopped playing instruments in the synagogue to mourn the destruction of the temple and later justified it as a temptation to violate sabbath by changing a string if it broke.
Here is a quote from Sotah 48a according to
http://www.come-and-hear.com/sotah/sotah_48.html
" WHEN THE SANHEDRIN CEASED [TO FUNCTION], SONG CEASED FROM THE PLACES OF FEASTING; AS IT IS SAID, THEY SHALL NOT DRINK WINE WITH A SONG ETC "
Compare with Mishneh Sotah 9,11 according to https://www.sefaria.org/Mishnah_Sot...ide=Torat_Emet_357&with=Version Open&lang2=en
"When the Sanhedrin [highest court, charged with deciding cases and appeals that had national significance. It was comprised of 71 scholars who had received the full traditional rabbinical ordination, and its decisions fixed Jewish practice for subsequent generations.] ceased, song ceased from the places of feasting, as it is said, “They drink their wine without song” (Isaiah 24:9). "
The Sanhedrin was still around throughout the end of Acts and beyond until later in the first century. They tried our Lord and show up in Acts.
I hear they stopped playing instruments in the synagogue to mourn the destruction of the temple and later justified it as a temptation to violate sabbath by changing a string if it broke.
Why do you bring the things out of your heart and label them as coming from mine, again that is folly.
If you are going to ask any questions then maybe you should ask yourself where did the thought that Proverbs is a wicked man's advice come from.
As far as your question regarding my idea of wisdom, if that would be my folly to give you instruction on getting wisdom seeing there if nothing in your hand, or is there
If you are going to ask any questions then maybe you should ask yourself where did the thought that Proverbs is a wicked man's advice come from.
As far as your question regarding my idea of wisdom, if that would be my folly to give you instruction on getting wisdom seeing there if nothing in your hand, or is there
Actually, all the places I previously cited do, and including yourself (though you might not think so).
I am going to recommend a book to you, instead of citing over 635 pages of it. Here it is.
It demonstrates, that the so-called 'archaic' words of the KJB, are used in everyday modern English around the world, in everyday use, newspapers, videos, and even in the 'modern' versions (NIV, ASV, RV, etc, of which I may also demonstrate for you) etc. All with citation. You can find it VancePublications, or AVPublications. If you would like specific examples I can cite them from this source with page reference, as I own this book, and have it in hand as I type.
If you do not prefer to read, you can simply view the following, for a short summation of such things.
I am going to recommend a book to you, instead of citing over 635 pages of it. Here it is.
"Archaic Words And The Authorized Version" by Laurence M. Vance, PhD.
It demonstrates, that the so-called 'archaic' words of the KJB, are used in everyday modern English around the world, in everyday use, newspapers, videos, and even in the 'modern' versions (NIV, ASV, RV, etc, of which I may also demonstrate for you) etc. All with citation. You can find it VancePublications, or AVPublications. If you would like specific examples I can cite them from this source with page reference, as I own this book, and have it in hand as I type.
If you do not prefer to read, you can simply view the following, for a short summation of such things.
i'm asking questions - because i am not able to say what you are thinking and believing.
why don't you say 'no' or 'yes' ?
why leave it to my imagination? why leave me to have to make inferences?
it came from people saying that alcohol is sinful, and from tempting people to sin being sinful.
who is it that gives people evil substances? a wicked man or a righteous man?
people are often quoting part of chapter 31 saying, see, it says wine is not for kings. and they say 'we are kings therefore it is sin for us'
but the very same scripture says kings should plead the cause of the poor and needy. the very same scripture says give wine and strong drink to the brokenhearted & destitute, so they can forget their misery.
so it is a very natural and straightforward conclusion that if one has the position all alcohol is sin, then it follows that giving alcohol to anyone is sin. this is what they say about John 2, 'surely Jesus didn't actually make wine He made mountain dew®' because it would be sin if Jesus gave anyone wine. that's the argument, and it's been made several times over in the last 30 pages. to give a person alcohol is wicked.
but this is what Proverbs 31:6-7 says. give beer to the brokenhearted. give wine to those in misery. let them drink and forget.
how is this reconciled?
you told me, it is reconciled by reading it as though the language is not what the language is. you say, this is reconciled by the Bible saying exactly the opposite of what the Bible says -- you say that it 'should be apparent' that the imperative word is not an imperative word. vis a vis.
does that really not make sense to you how logic demands the conclusion i'm asking you about?
i am not accusing you; i am asking you. because reason leads me to this conclusion from what i have read, yet i can scarcely believe what i am hearing! that is why i am asking, is this true? is this really the argument?
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