have actually read my linked materials. The quote is from "Apostolic Constitutions" (supposedly late 3rd C.) and is being used to refute Catholics that claim Christians were not keeping Sabbath so late after Jesus' ascension. Neither I nor brother Bob Pickle, place any credence in that source to identify the Lord's day of Revelation 1:10 precisely because of its Catholic nature, which denies what scripture teaches in several places (Isaiah 8:20).
So you are saying you use it as proof and simultaneously reject it as proof.
That doesn't strike you as duplicitous?
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