How is the KJV corrupt?

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May 22, 2020
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How is the KJV corrupt?
It isn't. The recommended version over all others. It contains no new, new age religion unauthorized insertions.
It is criticized as with those who wish to compare it's presentation to the ...new, new age religion editions of the Bible....now thrust upon the christian community as ...the saving of all...when it fact they are miss leading...... all since the 1960's.
 

Mem

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Sep 23, 2014
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This is used by at least one onlyist to "prove" that it is not "our" faith that saves, but Jesus' faith.
As if a joint venture, or partnership is out of the question even though apparently, at least to me, our God seems so relational. It strikes me as kind of paradoxical{?} to see an aversion to commitment (of responsibility) from such anyone so, well, committed in such a way as to be an onlyist.
 
O

Oblio

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I hear the communist Chinese are rewriting the bible according to their standards. Think the NIV's bad...you ain't seen nothin' yet!
I had a conversation the other day with a member from China who was trying to convince me to consider communism. That will not happen! To me, communism is my enemy!
 
May 22, 2020
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as far as "is kjv perfect" it only takes a very simple illustration.

there is no such thing as a farthing in Hebrew culture. a farthing was absolutely never used in Israel, ever, in no uncertain terms. never.

the farthing was only used in Great Britain from the 1200's to 1961, and was worth 1/960th of a British pound-sterling.
its value fluctuated over time.

kjv says "are not two sparrows sold for a farthing?"for Matthew 10:29

well today the answer is no. absolutely not. there is no such thing as a farthing. in Israel, there was never any such thing as a farthing.
never.



the actual word is Matthew 10:29 is "assarion" which was a coin issued in Greek-speaking areas of the Roman empire.
it likewise is no longer in circulation today.
two sparrows today, if you wanted to buy some, cost more than $300. way more than a a thousandth of a dollar.
the kjv estimate of monetary value is simply inaccurate. there is no way to deny that. there is no way a monetary value can remain accurate over all time, because specific monetary values fluctuate.

IMO the proper thing to do when translating Matthew 10:29 is leave the name of the coin alone. just put 'assarion' -- i have to look up what a farthing is, just like i have to look up what a farthing is. i have to make some kind of calculation to figure out what that means in my context. farthing isn't correct. Jesus certainly never had a farthing in his hand.

therefore the kjv is not perfect ((IMO)) -- end of story, as far as i'm concerned.



i know that is a very picky and small thing.
but if anyone is going to make the claim that the kjv is 100% perfect, then the slightest flaw will contradict such a claim.

do i read kjv? yes. do i think kjv is largely superior to most modern translations? yes.
do i consider kjv to be the 100% perfect translations and any other translation a work of Satan on principle?
wow, no.

I hope you didn't stay up all night long laboring to find that. It has no substantive negative value to God's word.
Since when does man made elements of our existence become perfect?
Having said that we are assured that the commandments to get us to eternal salvation is perfect. Just follow them.
 
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May 22, 2020
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Dino246 said:
This is used by at least one onlyist to "prove" that it is not "our" faith that saves, but Jesus' faith.[Quote}


What?

Please explain and scriptures?
 

John146

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Jan 13, 2016
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Dino246 said:
This is used by at least one onlyist to "prove" that it is not "our" faith that saves, but Jesus' faith.[Quote}


What?

Please explain and scriptures?
The faith of Jesus Christ justifies the believer. The faith of Jesus Christ points to his work he accomplished on the cross. It’s a matter of whose faith justifies.

Galatians 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
 

ResidentAlien

Well-known member
Apr 21, 2021
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No, they do not say the same thing. Read it again. "Faith of the Son of God" v "Faith in the Son of God"

My faith is a measure, given by God. It is His gift to all mankind. The faith of Christ is immeasurable. So I put my limited, natural faith into Christ, who graciously becomes my faith.

Every aspect of Christian life is exchange. I have love, but it is limited by selfishness and my likes and dislikes. The love of God extends even to those who despise and reject Him. I have joy when the circumstances are suitable. The joy of the Lord is unshakeable in any circumstance. I have peace when circumstances suit me. Yet the peace of Christ is not of the word, it is peace that is beyond understanding. Faith is no different. Lord Jesus is my life. So I have all that He is. It has to be worked out in experience, but I am complete in Him.
Okay, thanks for clarifying, I missed that.

You're making a mountain out of a molehill however. There's a good reason virtually every other version says "in." If you can't understand a concept as simple as faith in Christ I don't know what to say. Even the NKJV changed it; but we all know the NKJV is corrupted.
(sarcasm here folks)
 

ResidentAlien

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Apr 21, 2021
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I thought TheLearner corrected his mistake and said this thread was about the NKJV. How come we're still stuck on the KJV?
 

Dino246

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Jun 30, 2015
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I thought TheLearner corrected his mistake and said this thread was about the NKJV. How come we're still stuck on the KJV?
Because the KJV-onlyists just can't leave it alone.
 

Dino246

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Jun 30, 2015
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It isn't. The recommended version over all others. It contains no new, new age religion unauthorized insertions.
... other than "Easter", "baptize", and thousands of italicized words not found in the originals. ;)
 

ResidentAlien

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Apr 21, 2021
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Because the KJV-onlyists just can't leave it alone.
The fact that the NKJV changed "of the Son of God" to "in the Son of God" in Galatians 2:20 is probably an example of why KJV onlyists think the NKJV is corrupt. Any variation whatso ever from the KJV is a corruption in the minds of many. It simply has to differ from the KJV and it's corrupt.
 
May 22, 2020
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... other than "Easter", "baptize", and thousands of italicized words not found in the originals. ;)
...thats not new age re;igion. Yes..italicized for a perfectly good reason...follow them. It appears you have a challenge doing that. We are blessed in sripture when Christ speaks.

Geesscch
 

posthuman

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Jul 31, 2013
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I hope you didn't stay up all night long laboring to find that. It has no substantive negative value to God's word.
Since when does man made elements of our existence become perfect?
Having said that we are assured that the commandments to get us to eternal salvation is perfect. Just follow them.
lol no, it struck me immediately when i was a child less than 10 years old.
i had to ask, '
what is a farthing?'

so, pursuing that answer leads to '
well farthing is what the translators put for what is actually in the text, an ancient Greco-Roman coin'
then i had to find out what an assarion is.

it seems to me i would be better off having to find out what an assarion is, in the beginning, and leave the whole '
farthing' business out.
isn't that reasonable?


as far as whether the mention of a unit of money is significant or not, well, God saw fit to put it in the Bible.
therefore it is not meaningless.

that's all.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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The faith of Jesus Christ justifies the believer. The faith of Jesus Christ points to his work he accomplished on the cross. It’s a matter of whose faith justifies.
the faithfulness of Christ or the faith of Christ?

it seems weird to me to speak of God as tho He '
has faith' -- faith in what or who? Himself?
 
May 22, 2020
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the faithfulness of Christ or the faith of Christ?

it seems weird to me to speak of God as tho He 'has faith' -- faith in what or who? Himself?
It is erronous and fake.
Another way for the new age religion elements to try to miss lead.
It meets the also meaning of ......transference .....the left thinks they are a master at.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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It is erronous and fake.
Another way for the new age religion elements to try to miss lead.
It meets the also meaning of ......transference .....the left thinks they are a master at.
i don't understand what you're trying to say here, or how it relates to my post?
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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the faithfulness of Christ or the faith of Christ?

it seems weird to me to speak of God as tho He 'has faith' -- faith in what or who? Himself?
Christ was completely obedient to his Father’s will even unto death, the death of the cross. The righteousness of God was on display through the faith of Christ.

Romans 3
21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
 

Dino246

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Jun 30, 2015
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...thats not new age re;igion. Yes..italicized for a perfectly good reason...follow them. It appears you have a challenge doing
You have a challenge being respectful. Don’t be a jackdonkey.
 

ResidentAlien

Well-known member
Apr 21, 2021
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The KJV is beautiful. Certainly a few problems and deficiencies but beautiful nevertheless.
The original poster has posted that he made a typo and the name of this thread should be "How is the NKJV Corrupt?" Not KJV.