Once saved always saved (OSAS) debunked

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posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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then what about the One whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world = the Son of God

Verse 36 Jesus said "How then can you accuse Me of blasphemy for stating that I am the Son of God?"
In context - the Word is greater than those the Word came to. How then can it be blasphemous, as you say it is?

above all 'gods'

we are from beneath, He is from Above.
The Word was with God, and God was The Word.
 
Mar 4, 2020
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Swinging from the dugout lol
if it makes you all feel better and happier to say I'm striking out, swinging from the dugout, playing on a tee ball team, etc then I accept that. I feel God is leading me to have sympathy. Enjoy. Go in peace.
 
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In context - the Word is greater than those the Word came to. How then can it be blasphemous, as you say it is?

above all 'gods'

we are from beneath, He is from Above.
The Word was with God, and God was The Word.
And do you know who else can be born from above, be Jesus' brother, and be Jesus' friend? :)
 

rogerg

Well-known member
Jul 13, 2021
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Claiming to be a son of God isn’t the same thing as claiming to be God. The distance between these two claims is vast.

In John 9 the Pharisees claimed that God is their Father too. It isn’t a problem to say that and doesn’t imply claiming to be God. Keep in mind the Pharisees were just looking for a reason to stone Jesus so they leveled many false accusations, which he resisted

41You are doing the works of your father.”
“We are not illegitimate children,” they declared. “Our only Father is God Himself.”
42Jesus said to them, “If God were your Father, you would love Me, for I have come here from God. I have not come on My own, but He sent Me.

As far as “The Father is in me and I in the Father” goes, it’s just a reference to being in unity with God. Jesus also said his disciples have what he has:

John 14
20On that day you will know that I am in My Father, and you are in Me, and I am in you.21Whoever has My commandments and keeps them is the one who loves Me. The one who loves Me will be loved by My Father, and I will love him and reveal Myself to him.”
Christ claimed that He was God incarnate.

[Phl 2:6-7 KJV]
6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:

[Heb 1:1-4 KJV]
1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, ...
2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [his] Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
3 Who being the brightness of [his] glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;
4 Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they.

[Heb 1:7-8 KJV]
7 And of the angels he saith, Who maketh his angels spirits, and his ministers a flame of fire.
8 But unto the Son [he saith], Thy throne, O God, [is] for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness [is] the sceptre of thy kingdom.

[Jhn 17:5 KJV]
5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
 
Mar 4, 2020
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Christ claimed that He was God incarnate.

[Phl 2:6-7 KJV]
6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Philippians 2:6 says that Jesus was in the "form" of God, not that he is God.

As human, you and I are also in God's image. We're in the form of God in a sense.

[Heb 1:1-4 KJV]
1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, ...
2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [his] Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
3 Who being the brightness of [his] glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;
4 Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they.
That doesn't say Jesus is God.

You should understand it like this:

1 Corinthians 8
6yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we exist. And there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we exist.

[Heb 1:7-8 KJV]
7 And of the angels he saith, Who maketh his angels spirits, and his ministers a flame of fire.
8 But unto the Son [he saith], Thy throne, O God, [is] for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness [is] the sceptre of thy kingdom.
This is quoted from Psalm 45:6-7 where it's talking about a human king being referred to as a god. This human king in Psalm 45 isn't Lord God Almighty. This is evident from the next verse in Hebrews 1 where it says that this person's God has anointed him above his companions only because he loved righteousness and hated wickedness. That implies this person is lesser than God, has human companions, and was anointed conditionally.

9You have loved righteousness
and hated wickedness;
therefore God, Your God, has anointed You
above Your companions with the oil of joy.”



[Jhn 17:5 KJV]5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
Sharing God's glory doesn't make someone God. This is obvious in verse 22 where the human disciples were given the same glory Jesus had.

John 17
22I have given them the glory You gave Me, so that they may be one as We are one—
 

Mem

Senior Member
Sep 23, 2014
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Philippians 2:6 says that Jesus was in the "form" of God, not that he is God.

As human, you and I are also in God's image. We're in the form of God in a sense.



That doesn't say Jesus is God.

You should understand it like this:

1 Corinthians 8
6yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we exist. And there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we exist.



This is quoted from Psalm 45:6-7 where it's talking about a human king being referred to as a god. This human king in Psalm 45 isn't Lord God Almighty. This is evident from the next verse in Hebrews 1 where it says that this person's God has anointed him above his companions only because he loved righteousness and hated wickedness. That implies this person is lesser than God, has human companions, and was anointed conditionally.

9You have loved righteousness
and hated wickedness;
therefore God, Your God, has anointed You
above Your companions with the oil of joy.”





Sharing God's glory doesn't make someone God. This is obvious in verse 22 where the human disciples were given the same glory Jesus had.

John 17
22I have given them the glory You gave Me, so that they may be one as We are one—
In your opinion, is that human king referred to in Psalm 45 "whosoever"?
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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The argument that insists Jesus saved everyone, all people, says that. By virtue of the meaning of the adjective, all. (Jesus saved all people)
"Being or representing the entire or total number, amount, or quantity: synonym: whole.
Constituting, being, or representing the total extent or the whole.
Being the utmost possible of."

Just as with the pronoun, everyone. (Jesus saved everyone) "every person; everybody."
Your not answering the question

who in this chatroom have you heard tell you or say Jesus saves everyone (universalim)?
 

Everlasting-Grace

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Dec 18, 2021
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To have your question answered, you need to consider other applicable verses. God. In writing the Bible, God wrote it as one integrated book from Genesis to The Revelation, but did not always choose to provide the fullness of His answer in one verse. He informs/warns us of that in 2 Pet 1:20. And it is demonstrated in that both an OT and a N.T are needed to complete the gospel.

Your reply has the word "all" in it but does not define who/what the 'all" are - it can potentially mean many things. You've assumed it to mean everyone ever born, but based upon that verse alone, your assumption cannot be considered conclusive. Logically speaking, your criticism therefore can be applied to yourself as well as to Butterflyjones's - you infer something not explicitly stated therein.
So, knowing that, and based upon the words of the verse alone, the "all" is undetermined. To find that out, we need to look elsewhere for resolution, or run the risk of error. Where I personally disagree with your assessment, is that Butterflyjones did provide you that further explanation/resolution of the "all" using other verses to do so. Logically speaking, the "all" cannot be anyone outside of those the Father gave to Christ of which, He must save all. This unequivocally eliminates anyone not given to Christ by the Father as being part of the "all" or of Christ being their Saviour, because no one besides those can/must/will be saved, and hence, Christ has never been their Saviour.
That is, for those who remain unsaved, it is not possible that Christ could ever have been their Saviour, because by definition, the unsaved have no Saviour.
Therefore, the "all" does not pertain to everyone.

[Jhn 6:44 KJV]
44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.

[Jhn 6:37, 39 KJV]
37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out. ...
39 And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
The verse says in the greek Panton Anthropos (all mankind, all humankind, all in the world)

It is pretty specific. It can not be mistranslated or twisted to say anything else

as for other places in scripture

John 3. Jesus did not come to judge the world but that the world may be saved.

he died for the world

whoever believes will not perish but have life eternal (they will live this new life forever)
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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If Jesus saved all then 2 Thessalonians 1:9 is falsehood.

God is the sustainer of all people, believers and unbelievers. This does not mean all are saved. Jesus made that clear.

That you cannot answer my question but asked instead one of your own is actually your answer. You don't know.

You are free to believe in Universalism. That is what you are advocating. The Bible and the verses I and others provided show that Universalism, everyone is saved, is not sustained by Christs gospel.

May God always keep you and yours safe and blessed. Amen.
Who said jesus saves all? Being the SAVIOR of all and SAVING all is not the same

I can be the savior of all. But it does not mean ALL will be saved.

The fact is, it says he came to save all. But who is saved?

Whoever BELIEVES is not condemned

Whoever DOES NOT BELIEVE is condemned already!!

Thats why God will not be mocked or seen as an evil God. Because his salvation was enough for those lost. And COULD have saved them

They did not want it..
 

Snacks

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Feb 10, 2022
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John 3:18 states quite clearly those who don’t believe aren’t saved.
The opportunity for everyone to be saved exists but not everyone chooses to be saved. John 3.18 does not support calvinism; it describes the condemnation of people who embrace free will by refusing to place even the smallest amount of faith in Jesus Christ.
 

Snacks

Well-known member
Feb 10, 2022
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Who said jesus saves all? Being the SAVIOR of all and SAVING all is not the same

I can be the savior of all. But it does not mean ALL will be saved.

The fact is, it says he came to save all. But who is saved?

Whoever BELIEVES is not condemned

Whoever DOES NOT BELIEVE is condemned already!!

Thats why God will not be mocked or seen as an evil God. Because his salvation was enough for those lost. And COULD have saved them

They did not want it..
In all honesty and humility I just don’t get how some people do not understand what is so blatantly simple and obvious.
 

Everlasting-Grace

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Dec 18, 2021
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In all honesty and humility I just don’t get how some people do not understand what is so blatantly simple and obvious.
I have to wonder if it is fear/ Fear of even remotely having the possibility to take credit for something?

Its in my view a lock of understanding of faith
 

HeIsHere

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May 21, 2022
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I'd like to take the opportunity here, because i am so often wrongly called a calvinist, to point out that i agree with you on this point - Christ died for the sins of the whole world, not just some sins of some people.

It is only those who believe that enjoy the atonement He accomplished.

=]


Thanks for reading my drivel,

- post
Yes, I agree this is biblical.

Each person needs to receive the gift on an individual level.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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Sharing God's glory doesn't make someone God. This is obvious in verse 22 where the human disciples were given the same glory Jesus had.

John 17
22I have given them the glory You gave Me, so that they may be one as We are one—
No, there are two different glories in John 17 - the glory the Lord has had with the LORD from the beginning, and the glory given to the Son of Man.

He speaks of taking up again the glory He set aside to become a man, and of glorifying the apostles with the glory He wore as a man.

c.f.e. 1 Corinthians 15:40-41 with Philippians 2 & John 1 in mind.