The words Jewish Christianity and Jewish Christian’s do not appear in the Bible either. So if that means Gentiles we’re not Christian’s then neither were Jews. That doesn’t prove anything.
Every source I have read about the church at Antioch says that it was a mixed congregation of Jews and Gentiles. Regardless, it calls the Christian’s “DISCIPLES” not Jews. You are ASSUMING too much and without proof. That’s just your limiting what the word actually says. When the word Christian is used in the Bible, it NEVER SPECIFIES only Jews, but refers the name “Christian” to “disciples”, or “ANYONE” in 1Peter 4:11. How are you not afraid to speak where the Bible does NOT speak? Rev. 22:18-19.
You said….
“Peter always and only wrote to the Jews about the Jews for the Jews without mention or consideration to the Gentiles, let alone the Body of Christ. Paul writing "anyone" referred to the Jews to whom he wrote, not Gentiles and not "Christians." Nor does this mention have anything
You seem to forget that the gospel is for all —not just Jews. There is plenty of evidence in the scriptures that Paul often turned away from the Jews to the gentiles and preached and worked with them. The Phillipian jailer was one example Acts 16. The churches where he worked were made up of Jews AND gentiles. Again your argument is based on ASSUMPTION—not evidence. Peter is the one who converted the first gentile in Acts 10. He addresses his epistle to the CHURCHES in 5 provinces—Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bythynia. Do you really believe that there were no gentiles in any of these churches???? Assumption!! Again. No proof! You are on sinking sand.
You said the Bible does not speak of gentile Christianity or gentile Christian’s. Well,
“Jewish Christian” and Jewish Christianity do not appear in the Bible either. Acts 11:26 the word “disciples” includes both gentiles and Jews. It doesn’t mean “only Jews.” That doesn’t prove anything!!
Acts 26:28 does not say “almost you persuade me to be a Jewish Christian”. . You assume too much. No proof.
1Peter 4:16 does not say if any “Jew” suffers as a Christian. No proof. It says if ANYONE— that, my friend , includes gentiles, blacks, whites, Asian, etc. Anyone” means any body. Not just Jews. Why would you try to make that “only Jews?”
You said…
QUOTE="Dino246, post: 5441462, member: 223333"]I suggest you read the context more thoroughly. In 1 Corinthians 16, Paul was talking about a collection for the believers in Jerusalem, who were enduring a famine at that time (See Acts 11:28). He also taught that he himself was not asking for support, though he could. I have yet to come across a traveling preacher who does not …
Paul was paid wages to preach, the gospel, by the churches, 2 Corinthians 11:8. He told the Philippians that “ no church shared with me concerning giving and receiving but you only..” and “even in Thessalonica you sent aid once and again to my necessities.” It is not wrong for preachers to be supported by the church or churches. Where did the “churches get the funds to support the preaching of the gospel? The only place ever mentioned in the New testament of the church even having a treasury is in 1 Cor. 16:1-2. Regardless of whether you believe it or not, the churches in the New Testament were “ORDERED” to take up a collection on the first day of the week. Every week has a “first day.” Just as the Jews did not ask God WHICH seventh day to keep holy, neither did Christians in the first century have to ask GOd which first day of the week do you want us to give into a church collection? The Jews knew that EVERY week has a seventh day, and each time a seventh day came around, they were to keep that day holy. In like manner, every week has a first day, and they understood that every time a first day came around, they were to take up a collection for the church. How else could the church have funds to support Paul’ while he preached the gospel? churches also were commanded to take care of “widows in deed” in 1 Tim 5 They were taken into “the number” of the church and fully supported by the church. So the early church was involved in evangelism and benevolence. That means they had to have funds. It’s illogical to insist it did not come from a common church treasury when God plainly tells us the church had one. I Cor, 9:1 “Now concerning the “”MINISTERING TO THE SAINTS… and in verse 12 he says,” For the administration of this service not only SUPPLIES THE NEEDS OF THE SAINTS… “ There is abundant evidence from the scriptures that prove the early churches of Christ used funds from a church collection to do benevolent work and to support evangelism from a common treasury.
The early churches of Christ did NOT get their funds by selling “chicken dinners” and “Boston Butts!” There is no evidence of collecting funds into a Church “collection anywhere else in the New Testament other than 1 Cor. 16:1-2
“Now concerning the COLLECTION for the saints, As I have given ORDERS to the CHURCHES of Galatia, even so MUST YOU DO also.
“ On the first day of the week, let each one of you lay something aside, AS HE HAS PROSPERED…”.
This is a command for all churches. Every time there is a first day of the week. This provides funds for the churches to help needy saints, provide for their widows, and support the preaching of the gospel.
It’s fine for you to not believe this. That is certainly your choice. Just remember that Jesus said His word will judge you in the last day. Good luck with that.
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