From evasion to false allegation to everybody has means all questions reflect. A textbook study in fallacies and a full-time job tracking them.
I can see quite a bit in J5-6. Please unload your question and ask it clearly and verse specific. Honestly, I'm not sure you have the ability. As it stands it's simply a loaded rhetorical query with your presuppositional tradition throughout.
Jesus tells a very specific group in J5 that they do not will to come to Him and He explains why. At least you now integrate the reality of the involvement of their will in your rhetorical question. Then into J6 he deals with 3 more groups and their issues. His grace is extended to all of them. Their responses differ. Even the ones who accept Him are challenged to the limit.
There's was never a time I even remotely hinted or suggested or inferred the involvement of people's will.
And I already asked the question several times. Try to keep up already. Plus you actually answered question #3 it by what I bolded above. Even though there's nothing in Jn 5 or 6 that even remotely hints that God's saving grace is universal in scope, you have reached this conclusion. Where in
either chapter do you come up with the concept of universal saving grace? Where in Jn 6 did Jesus tell the phony disciples who followed him that they should believe in Him because his Father has given them to Him and is drawing them to Him? Where in Jn 6 does Jesus teach that the Father gives him and draws to him each and every person in the world? Not even Jn 12:32 teaches that!
Secondly, this false concept that you have also implies that God gives his grace apart from any real purpose of actually saving anyone. His "saving" grace is merely a hit 'n' miss proposition. You, evidently, understand "enable" to mean only that God provides an opportunity for salvation; whereas I see God's saving grace as empowerment that actually
causes one to willingly align himself to God's will (Gen 20:5-7; Php 2:13, etc.)
. This kind of enabling power is found everywhere throughout scripture -- both in terms of miraculous physical and spiritual healings, warfare deliverances and other important sundry of events; and this causal power is also expressed in the terms of the New Covenant.
Thirdly, your understanding of this universally-given grace is also flawed because it implies God either isn't omniscient or his grace has nothing to do with his divine power -- either of which is a fatally flawed unbiblical concept.
Fourthly, your interpretation flies in the face of such passages as Job 42:2; Mk 9:23; 14:36; Lk 18:27, etc. Obviously, the sons of men can thwart the Creator's purpose for granting men his grace, if you believe they can resist it, notwithstanding Act 7:51, which would have to be reconciled with the aforementioned passages. Either that or God has no real purpose in providing "saving" grace to fallen men, other than giving them the opportunity to accept or reject, which at the end of the day reduces the Almighty to a potential Savior, which is also a foreign concept in scripture.
