The problem of the statement of “never saved to begin with”

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Dec 18, 2021
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Is there a relationship between faith and the fruit of the Holy Spirit?

Would a dead faith be one that bears no fruit?
Is fruit proof of salvation. or required to be saved.

Your not going to try to insert a works based gospel.. Abraham was saved before he did one work and produced one strawberry..

True faith saved, the result of that salvation is works..
 

Inquisitor

Well-known member
Mar 17, 2022
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An assurance, a trust, Read romans 4. God tells us about abrahams faith
Romans 4 must be read and understood in the wider context of the N.T.

Here is an example of a verse I use a lot, Ephesians 2:8, which by itself does not. Enable the reader to understand
the wider context. I will add two extra verses.

Ephesians 2:8-10
For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; not as a result of works,
so that no one may boast. For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared
beforehand so that we would walk in them.

Saved by grace through faith without any good works, therefore indicates an empty faith a dead faith.
 

Inquisitor

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Mar 17, 2022
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Is fruit proof of salvation. or required to be saved.

Your not going to try to insert a works based gospel.. Abraham was saved before he did one work and produced one strawberry..

True faith saved, the result of that salvation is works..
Not inserting anything. Ephesian 2:8-10 clearly tells us we are saved by grace through faith, for good works.

Ephesians 2:8-10 does not say saved by grace without good works.

Your trying to force the idea that an empty belief saves someone?

Your ignoring Ephesians 2:10.
 
Dec 18, 2021
6,662
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Romans 4 must be read and understood in the wider context of the N.T.

Here is an example of a verse I use a lot, Ephesians 2:8, which by itself does not. Enable the reader to understand
the wider context. I will add two extra verses.

Ephesians 2:8-10
For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; not as a result of works,
so that no one may boast. For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared
beforehand so that we would walk in them.

Saved by grace through faith without any good works, therefore indicates an empty faith a dead faith.
There you go trying to add works

a person is saved by grace through faith period end of discussion

what happens after has no bearing on his salvation
 
Dec 18, 2021
6,662
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Not inserting anything. Ephesian 2:8-10 clearly tells us we are saved by grace through faith, for good works.

Ephesians 2:8-10 does not say saved by grace without good works.

Your trying to force the idea that an empty belief saves someone?

Your ignoring Ephesians 2:10.
Now your bearing false witness. I never made any such claim

repent.
 

Inquisitor

Well-known member
Mar 17, 2022
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There you go trying to add works

a person is saved by grace through faith period end of discussion

what happens after has no bearing on his salvation
Are you saying that a person once saved by grace through faith. That same person 10 years later
openly denies Jesus Christ, and walks away from the church. That person is saved because they
once believed in Jesus?
 
Apr 24, 2025
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Are you saying that a person once saved by grace through faith. That same person 10 years later
openly denies Jesus Christ, and walks away from the church. That person is saved because they
once believed in Jesus?
Yes.
Jesus said so first. :)

It is an open forum and I believe we all may respond to any post. If I am mistaken please let me know.
 

PaulThomson

Well-known member
Oct 29, 2023
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I have a hypothetical question. It's a bit strange and I'm sorry if it offends anyone (I do not intend to do this), but the hypothetical question is designed to test your logic/belief system.

Let's say I was alive during the time of Jesus. I just witnessed Peter deny Jesus for the third time. I run to him and stab him in the throat, murdering him. We know that Peter felt guilty and eventually repented and did a great many amazing works after he denied Christ.

My question, do you believe Peter would have been saved or not considering I robbed him of repenting/turning his heart back over to Christ by murdering him immediately after his third denial? Did he lose his salvation after each denial (and not repenting and turning his heart back over to Jesus)?
I don't believe that physical death ends the ability of the soul to think and make decisions. FRom my perspective (FMP) Peter's relationship with God at the time of the first resurrection, and therefore, whether he was eligible for inclusion in it, would depend upon His heart regarding God and Jesus Christ at the time of the first resurrection.
 

Inquisitor

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Mar 17, 2022
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Yes.
Jesus said so first. :)

It is an open forum and I believe we all may respond to any post. If I am mistaken please let me know.
It's an open forum but not for blatant heresy.

Romans 8:12-14
So then, brethren, we are under obligation, not to the flesh, to live according to the flesh
for if you are living according to the flesh, you must die; but if by the Spirit you are putting
to death the deeds of the body, you will live. For all who are being led by the Spirit of God,
these are sons of God
.

Do you understand what Paul is saying?
 
Apr 24, 2025
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It's an open forum but not for blatant heresy.

Romans 8:12-14
So then, brethren, we are under obligation, not to the flesh, to live according to the flesh
for if you are living according to the flesh, you must die; but if by the Spirit you are putting
to death the deeds of the body, you will live. For all who are being led by the Spirit of God,
these are sons of God
.

Do you understand what Paul is saying?
Is the Apostle Peter damned to Hell?
 
Oct 29, 2023
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Non-abiding belief, so not genuine belief?
When the person was believing > 50% so as to act commensurate with trust in Christ, they were abiding and they had abiding faith.
When the person stops believing > 50% so that they cease acting commensurate with trust in Christ, they have ceased to abide, and have therefore ceased to have abiding faith.

What do you make of Romans 12:1-3

Romans 12:1–3 (NKJV): 12 I beseech you therefore, brethren, by the mercies of God, that you present your bodies a living sacrifice, holy, acceptable to God, which is your reasonable service. 2 And do not be conformed to this world, but be transformed by the renewing of your mind, that you may prove what is that good and acceptable and perfect will of God.

3 For I say, through the grace given to me, to everyone who is among you, not to think of himself more highly than he ought to think, but to think soberly, as God deals (aorist active indicative) to each one a measure (anarthrous accusative) of faith (anarthrous genitive).
Λέγω γὰρ διὰ τῆς χάριτος τῆς δοθείσης μοι παντὶ τῷ ὄντι ἐν ὑμῖν μὴ ὑπερφρονεῖν παρ᾽ ὃ δεῖ φρονεῖν ἀλλὰ φρονεῖν εἰς τὸ σωφρονεῖν ἑκάστῳ ὡς ὁ θεὸς ἐμέρισεν μέτρον πίστεως

I see this as saying that we each have varying degrees of faith mixed with unbelief/doubt that God gives, not by pouring some commodity called faith into us, but by doing and saying things to and around us that inspire a degree of faith, and we should not overstate the degree of our faith, because God desires that we walk in truth, not mixed with any pretentiousness/hypocrisy, for a little leaven threatens to leaven the whole lump. We see examples of such pretentious hyperfaith from faith preachers who present themselves as men of great faith in God and Christ trusting 100% in Them, but who have developed such a desire for and dependency on and trust in their riches, that their faith in Christ is largely unfruitful, if one regards fruit as the fruit of the Spirit.
 

PaulThomson

Well-known member
Oct 29, 2023
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So, it's obvious that God gives [metaphorical] sheep, men and things to Jesus.
  • Do you think the neuter in 6:37 & 39 includes men (neuters can speak of groups)?
  • When Jesus in John6:65 speaks of God giving men the ability to come to Jesus, since God draws and gives ability to come, do you think in effect God has also given believing men to Jesus?
    • Or do you see the giving of sheep and men entirely different or separate from this?
    • IOW, where and when does God's giving of sheep and men to Jesus take place?
Yes. I think pan includes men.
Yes. God gave those who were God's in the days of Jesus' ministry (because they had heard and learned from the Father through the Law and Prophets), God gave them to Jesus to further instruct them in the Way prophesied in the Law and Prophets.
Yes. During the days of Jesus' ministry, God was granting people to come to Jesus by attracting them with the bait of the words and deeds He was doing through Jesus. Believers who had heard and learned from the Father were drawn to Jesus by the correspondences between Jesus word and deeds to the words and deeds predicted of messiah in the Law and Prophets. Unbelievers were attracted because of the unusual nature of the words and deeds the Father was doing through Jesus. Christ-haters were drawn to Jesus by the offensive words and deeds of Jesus, and they came out of envy to oppose and slander Him.

God's giving of particular sheep / men to Jesus occurred during Jesus' ministry. However, after Jesus resurrection He was given all authority in heaven and on earth, which means he was given all men, past present and future. Now He is drawing all men to himself. Hopef