Woman can't teach in the congregation

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Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
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You're defaming the Apostle Paul for having women in service to his church as what today would be called preachers.
Women were clearly serving the churches but NOT as elders, pastors, and teachers.

That would have been a violation of God's commandment. And that is what you and some others are advocating.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,587
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Women were clearly serving the churches but NOT as elders, pastors, and teachers.

That would have been a violation of God's commandment. And that is what you and some others are advocating.
I wonder why you feel the need to use all-bold font. It certainly doesn't make your position correct.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
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You're defaming the Apostle Paul for having women in service to his church as what today would be called preachers.
That is a very serious matter.
Paul was also having a sharp argument with Barnabas because he did not want to give Mark a second chance.

Peter was afraid of judaistic Christians from Jerusalem.

Apostolic synod in Jerusalem said that Christians should not eat meat sacrificed to idols, Paul allowed it.

You cannot use acts of apostles on the same level as commands of apostles that are based in theology and inspired by the Spirit.
 

Nauga

Active member
Jun 7, 2018
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Research the word "submit" in Greek and the historical cultural context, you may find your belief structure shaken.
How does that line up with the command to men and women both to submit to one another?
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,921
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How does that line up with the command to men and women both to submit to one another?
i know where "wives, submit yourselves to your husbands" is ((Ephesians 5:22)), but where is the command "husbands, submit yourselves to your wives" ?

please have a look at that chapter. the wife is to submit to the husband as to the Lord, and the husband is to love his wife as Christ loves the church. if that means the husband is to submit to the authority of the wife, then Christ must submit to the authority of the church, His bride. so... is that the case?
the picture is
husband:wife :: Christ:church


also, welcome to CC Nauga!
hi, i'm post :)
 

maxwel

Senior Member
Apr 18, 2013
9,526
2,609
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Women teaching in the congregation...

hmmm....

is this to imply that people are letting women into the churches?


-------
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,921
13,607
113
You're defaming the Apostle Paul for having women in service to his church as what today would be called preachers.
That is a very serious matter.
today we call virtually every service in the church the job of the 'preacher' or 'pastor'
i don't know much about church history, but i think this wasn't always the case . . ?

like, pastor and preacher aren't necessarily interchangeable terms, but we use them that way these days and expect them to be the primary teachers, counselors, mentors, organizers, evangelists, caretakers, visiting sick and elderly and troubled, mowing the lawns, speaking in tongues, keeping the finances, moderating the chatrooms, taking charge of the buffet, etc etc

anyway ((my point)) so just because a woman filled a role that today we call 'the preachers job' doesn't mean she was the teacher of the church 2,000 years ago. we could easily be radically misusing the word 'preacher'
 
Oct 6, 2017
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Because, after all, it says so right there in Speculations 4:9. :rolleyes:
I'm not sure about the book of Speculations and what it says, but 1 Corinthians 14:34- 35 is crystal clear on the matter. You have to twist and contort the plain, clear writings of Paul to the Corinthians concerning teaching and preaching in the church to conclude otherwise. Anyone without an agenda, never having read 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 would have no trouble understanding the context as well as the teaching. An honest commentary of these verses can only have one result. " The Bible means what it says, all we have to do is believe it".
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,587
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I'm not sure about the book of Speculations and what it says, but 1 Corinthians 14:34- 35 is crystal clear on the matter. You have to twist and contort the plain, clear writings of Paul to the Corinthians concerning teaching and preaching in the church to conclude otherwise. Anyone without an agenda, never having read 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 would have no trouble understanding the context as well as the teaching. An honest commentary of these verses can only have one result. " The Bible means what it says, all we have to do is believe it".
Anyone "without an agenda" would look at the wider context and recognize that women are expressly permitted to speak aloud in chapter 11, and that they are not expressly excluded anywhere else in the letter. Anyone "without an agenda" would recognize that Jesus treated women far better than was common in the culture of the day. Anyone "without an agenda" would look at the roles occupied by Junia, Priscilla, Phoebe, and a host of others, and wonder how they fulfilled those roles (with Paul's blessing!) if women are to be silent.

Since it is "crystal clear", please go ahead and present the verse in the Law where it states clearly that women shall be silent and/or in subjection.

Good luck.
 
Sep 4, 2012
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I'm not sure about the book of Speculations and what it says, but 1 Corinthians 14:34- 35 is crystal clear on the matter.
Now that is funny. People have been speculating for centuries what law "Paul" was referring to in verse 34.
 
Oct 6, 2017
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Anyone "without an agenda" would look at the wider context and recognize that women are expressly permitted to speak aloud in chapter 11, and that they are not expressly excluded anywhere else in the letter. Anyone "without an agenda" would recognize that Jesus treated women far better than was common in the culture of the day. Anyone "without an agenda" would look at the roles occupied by Junia, Priscilla, Phoebe, and a host of others, and wonder how they fulfilled those roles (with Paul's blessing!) if women are to be silent.

Since it is "crystal clear", please go ahead and present the verse in the Law where it states clearly that women shall be silent and/or in subjection.

Good luck.
I agree that there were women in the Bible who served in ways that seem to contradict the interpretation of 1 Tim. 2:11-12. Miriam, Deborah, Huldah, Priscilla, and Phoebe are the most commonly given examples as you mentioned. Ultimately, Miriam, Deborah, and Huldah are meaningless to the issue at hand, as Paul is addressing leadership in the church. Leadership in old covenant Israel is not the subject at hand. Regarding Priscilla and Phoebe, the New Testament nowhere describes them serving in a way that contradicts 1 Tim 2:11-12. Priscilla, with her husband Aquila, discipled Apollos in their home Acts 18:26. Phoebe is simply identified as a servant of the church Romans 16:1.

Galatians 3:28 says that men and women are equal in God's eyes. Men and women are equal in God's eyes, but that is not the issue. The subject of Galatians 3:28 is equality in Christ, equal access to the salvation Christ offers. Men and women, Jews and Gentiles, slave and free are equal in this context. Church leadership is not the subject of Galatians 3:28. Further, we cannot take one verse and use it to cancel out another verse. Both Galatians 3:28 and 1 Timothy 2:11-12 are true. They do not contradict each other.

So, what would be the reason for the restriction on women in 1 Timothy 2:11-12,? The answer is given in the next two verses: For Adam was formed first, then Eve; and Adam was not deceived, but the woman was deceived, 1 Timothy 2:13-14. The order of creation and the nature of the fall impacts spiritual leadership in the church, and in the family, see Ephesians 5:22-33. Women are not to teach or have spiritual authority over men because women were created to be helpers to men and because Eve was deceived into sin. Through creation, and because of the Fall, God has chosen to give men the primary teaching authority in the church.

So, what does this mean practically? What are women restricted from doing? The clear implication is that women are not to serve in any role which involves the authoritative spiritual teaching of men. The role of pastoring is reserved for men. This is confirmed in the two passages which deal specifically with the qualifications for church leadership 1 Timothy 3:1-13; Titus 1:6-9. Church leaders are described as the "husband of one wife," "a man whose children believe," and a "men worthy of respect."

Rather than focusing on what ministries women are restricted from, the focus should be on the multitude of ways God calls and gifts women to serve. Women are nowhere restricted from proclaiming the gospel to the lost Acts 1:8; 1 Peter 3:15. Women are encouraged to teach other women Titus 2:3-5. Women are nowhere restricted from teaching children. Women being restricted from spiritual teaching authority over men is not a punishment. Rather, it is a refocusing to the ministries, skills, and gifts with which God blesses women.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,587
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I agree that there were women in the Bible who served in ways that seem to contradict the interpretation of 1 Tim. 2:11-12. Miriam, Deborah, Huldah, Priscilla, and Phoebe are the most commonly given examples as you mentioned. Ultimately, Miriam, Deborah, and Huldah are meaningless to the issue at hand, as Paul is addressing leadership in the church. Leadership in old covenant Israel is not the subject at hand. Regarding Priscilla and Phoebe, the New Testament nowhere describes them serving in a way that contradicts 1 Tim 2:11-12. Priscilla, with her husband Aquila, discipled Apollos in their home Acts 18:26. Phoebe is simply identified as a servant of the church Romans 16:1.

Galatians 3:28 says that men and women are equal in God's eyes. Men and women are equal in God's eyes, but that is not the issue. The subject of Galatians 3:28 is equality in Christ, equal access to the salvation Christ offers. Men and women, Jews and Gentiles, slave and free are equal in this context. Church leadership is not the subject of Galatians 3:28. Further, we cannot take one verse and use it to cancel out another verse. Both Galatians 3:28 and 1 Timothy 2:11-12 are true. They do not contradict each other.

So, what would be the reason for the restriction on women in 1 Timothy 2:11-12,? The answer is given in the next two verses: For Adam was formed first, then Eve; and Adam was not deceived, but the woman was deceived, 1 Timothy 2:13-14. The order of creation and the nature of the fall impacts spiritual leadership in the church, and in the family, see Ephesians 5:22-33. Women are not to teach or have spiritual authority over men because women were created to be helpers to men and because Eve was deceived into sin. Through creation, and because of the Fall, God has chosen to give men the primary teaching authority in the church.

So, what does this mean practically? What are women restricted from doing? The clear implication is that women are not to serve in any role which involves the authoritative spiritual teaching of men. The role of pastoring is reserved for men. This is confirmed in the two passages which deal specifically with the qualifications for church leadership 1 Timothy 3:1-13; Titus 1:6-9. Church leaders are described as the "husband of one wife," "a man whose children believe," and a "men worthy of respect."

Rather than focusing on what ministries women are restricted from, the focus should be on the multitude of ways God calls and gifts women to serve. Women are nowhere restricted from proclaiming the gospel to the lost Acts 1:8; 1 Peter 3:15. Women are encouraged to teach other women Titus 2:3-5. Women are nowhere restricted from teaching children. Women being restricted from spiritual teaching authority over men is not a punishment. Rather, it is a refocusing to the ministries, skills, and gifts with which God blesses women.
In response to a request for a verse from the Law, you provide a novel from the new Testament.

Try again... please provide at least one verse from the LAW the states that women must be silent and/or in subjection, per 1 Corinthians 14:34.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
794
113
Since it is "crystal clear", please go ahead and present the verse in the Law where it states clearly that women shall be silent and/or in subjection.

Good luck.
a) "...thy submission shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee." Gn 3:16

b) Paul does not quote, he just makes a reference to law, so it does not have to be precisely in the same manner present there, but its more like "as you can see in the law". Sarah and Abraham can be such example, she called him her lord.

c) Does it have to be Moses' law? It can be also civil law, "natural law" etc.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
13,778
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Does it have to be Moses' law? It can be also civil law, "natural law" etc.
When Paul is dealing with spiritual matters, he always references the OT, not civil or natural law. The term "law" can be applied to several things, but in this case he is referring to the Torah -- as in the Law, the Prophets, and the Psalms.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
794
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When Paul is dealing with spiritual matters, he always references the OT, not civil or natural law. The term "law" can be applied to several things, but in this case he is referring to the Torah -- as in the Law, the Prophets, and the Psalms.
I just listed it as possibility, not as something that must be so.

But still a better possibility than to say "Paul was wrong, its not in the law", "its a sarcasm" and similar, imho.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
13,778
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I just listed it as possibility, not as something that must be so.

But still a better possibility than to say "Paul was wrong, its not in the law", "its a sarcasm" and similar, imho.
You are perfectly correct. And giving Sarah and Abraham's relationship backs up what is stated in Genesis 3:16.

For the naysayers though, any excuse to avoid the full significance of these teachings is good enough. Some may say Paul was a misogynist, others will say that all these teachings were *inserted* into Scripture, others will say that Paul contradicts Christ, others will say Women's Lib trumps Scripture, etc. But all this is TOTAL NONSENSE.
 
Oct 6, 2017
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In response to a request for a verse from the Law, you provide a novel from the new Testament.

Try again... please provide at least one verse from the LAW the states that women must be silent and/or in subjection, per 1 Corinthians 14:34.
I'm not sure how you are missing the complete picture, I did provide you with a response which explains God's order and reason for that order.
If you are looking for an Old Testament scripture designating men to the office of the Priest, you might read: (Exodus 28:1) "And take thou unto thee Aaron thy brother, and his sons with him, from among the children of Israel, that he may minister unto me in the priest's office, even Aaron, Nadab and Abihu, Eleazar and Ithamar, Aaron's sons.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,587
13,857
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I'm not sure how you are missing the complete picture, I did provide you with a response which explains God's order and reason for that order.
If you are looking for an Old Testament scripture designating men to the office of the Priest, you might read: (Exodus 28:1) "And take thou unto thee Aaron thy brother, and his sons with him, from among the children of Israel, that he may minister unto me in the priest's office, even Aaron, Nadab and Abihu, Eleazar and Ithamar, Aaron's sons.
I'm not "missing" anything; rather, I sincerely disagree with your position. The reason I consider your response inadequate is 1 Corinthians 14:34 has this: "The women are to keep silent in the churches; for they are not permitted to speak, but are to subject themselves, just as the Law also says."

The problem is this: there is not a single place in the Law (the Torah; Genesis through Deuteronomy) where any command is given that women must be silent and/or subject themselves. It simply isn't there. Genesis 3:16, which many claim to be the verse to which "Paul" is referring, does not command women to subject themselves, nor to be silent. In it, God says to the woman (there was only one!) that "your husband shall rule over you." Nothing about silence, and I don't accept that as a command, but a consequence.

The key word in 1 Cor 14:34 is "nomos" - law. It does not clearly identify the Torah, but that is clearly the sense in which Paul uses the word elsewhere. However, although he makes reference to the Law, he also makes it clear that Christians are not subject to the Law.
 
Oct 6, 2017
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I'm not "missing" anything; rather, I sincerely disagree with your position. The reason I consider your response inadequate is 1 Corinthians 14:34 has this: "The women are to keep silent in the churches; for they are not permitted to speak, but are to subject themselves, just as the Law also says."

The problem is this: there is not a single place in the Law (the Torah; Genesis through Deuteronomy) where any command is given that women must be silent and/or subject themselves. It simply isn't there. Genesis 3:16, which many claim to be the verse to which "Paul" is referring, does not command women to subject themselves, nor to be silent. In it, God says to the woman (there was only one!) that "your husband shall rule over you." Nothing about silence, and I don't accept that as a command, but a consequence.

The key word in 1 Cor 14:34 is "nomos" - law. It does not clearly identify the Torah, but that is clearly the sense in which Paul uses the word elsewhere. However, although he makes reference to the Law, he also makes it clear that Christians are not subject to the Law.
Wow!
I'm not "missing" anything; rather, I sincerely disagree with your position. The reason I consider your response inadequate is 1 Corinthians 14:34 has this: "The women are to keep silent in the churches; for they are not permitted to speak, but are to subject themselves, just as the Law also says."

The problem is this: there is not a single place in the Law (the Torah; Genesis through Deuteronomy) where any command is given that women must be silent and/or subject themselves. It simply isn't there. Genesis 3:16, which many claim to be the verse to which "Paul" is referring, does not command women to subject themselves, nor to be silent. In it, God says to the woman (there was only one!) that "your husband shall rule over you." Nothing about silence, and I don't accept that as a command, but a consequence.

The key word in 1 Cor 14:34 is "nomos" - law. It does not clearly identify the Torah, but that is clearly the sense in which Paul uses the word elsewhere. However, although he makes reference to the Law, he also makes it clear that Christians are not subject to the Law.
Why not just except Paul's authority on this matter as pertaining to the church? His teaching should be sufficient, and excepted. I believe as pertaining to 1 Corinthians 14:35 where Paul is referring back to the law as you pointed out in Genesis 3:16 clearly shows the order of authority that God has set up, the man ruling over the woman. Thusly, we see the harmony in what Paul wrote in 1 Cor.14: 38 and what is stated in Genesis 3:16. Authority in the home and authority in the church rest upon the men. This subject is probably one of the clearest teachings in the New Testament. To undermine Paul's authority and teaching is going against God, not me or anyone else who holds to proper biblical church order.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
794
113
I'm not "missing" anything; rather, I sincerely disagree with your position. The reason I consider your response inadequate is 1 Corinthians 14:34 has this: "The women are to keep silent in the churches; for they are not permitted to speak, but are to subject themselves, just as the Law also says."

The problem is this: there is not a single place in the Law (the Torah; Genesis through Deuteronomy) where any command is given that women must be silent and/or subject themselves. It simply isn't there. Genesis 3:16, which many claim to be the verse to which "Paul" is referring, does not command women to subject themselves, nor to be silent. In it, God says to the woman (there was only one!) that "your husband shall rule over you." Nothing about silence, and I don't accept that as a command, but a consequence.

The key word in 1 Cor 14:34 is "nomos" - law. It does not clearly identify the Torah, but that is clearly the sense in which Paul uses the word elsewhere. However, although he makes reference to the Law, he also makes it clear that Christians are not subject to the Law.
a) "...thy submission shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee." Gn 3:16

b) Paul does not quote, he just makes a reference to law, so it does not have to be precisely in the same manner present there, but its more like "as you can see in the law". Sarah and Abraham can be such example, she called him her lord.

c) Does it have to be Moses' law? It can be also civil law, "natural law" etc.

----

Its in the Law.

Its in the Law, even if we say its not a command - example of obedient wives are throughout the Law.

Civil law is, even though not the most probable, a possible solution to Paul's "as the law also says".