WHICH Bible "version" Is Authorized By God?

His translation gives it a footnote, because it used the (Novum Testamentum Graece) that follows the (Alexandrian Text) from Egypt, from the philosophical schools that (Removed It) the 1% minority of manuscript evidence,that supports new translations, NIV, NASB, ESV, RSV, ASV, JW's New World Translation

It's time you understand reality

God didn't use Adulterers (Kurt and Barbara Aland), include homosexual union supporter (Carlo Maria Martini)

Actually, it's easier. If you aren't bound to translating every word, you can take the meaning of the whole thought (phrase, sentence, or even passage) and find an equivalent in the target language. "It's raining cats and dogs" might become something like, "We are receiving an abundance of precipitation" rather than, "Small domesticated animals are falling from the sky".

I've been reading modern translations for 35 years.
What is an arminian?

So why was KJV so special to include it?

That's what you think

You overlook the skill of the translators, ya think YOU know about the intricacies of the original tongues and they didn't? don't you think they knew there are 3 words for love that describe different kinds of love? that's why there are teachers in the church.

You also overlook the wonderful Holy Ghost whose word it is and who is wonderfully able to teach it to the willing student.

So how much Greek and Hebrew do you read? What kind of hermeneutical tools do you use? It is actually the modern translations that capture Greek the best. Translators understand that making sense in the receiving language is just as more important as the sending language. This creates a huge problem, translating from Greek to English. First, their verbal system is based on aspect, not linear time, like English. Nouns, pronouns and adjectives use 4 (sometimes 5 with the vocative) cases for nouns. The adjectives have to match the noun or pronoun it is describing. Further, this is what the cases mean:

1. Nominative - subject of the sentence.
2. Accusative - Direct Object of the verb
3. Dative - Indirect Object of the verb
4. Genitive - possession of the noun or pronoun. In Greek they say "A ball of the woman." In English, we would likely say, "The woman's ball." That is the genitive case. When you can use apostrophe +s, you have the possessive in English, the Genitive in Greek.

But that doesn't even get into the fact that a nominative can go at the end of the sentence and an Accusative at the beginning. In English, we would assume the subject is the first noun in the sentence, coming before the verb. That is the correct word order in English. So, if you take a Greek sentence, it might be Accusative Verb, Nominative. To translate that word for word, your sentence would say, "The ball throws the women," to get the same word order. But it makes no sense. So, it has to be more dynamic and make actual sense in English, like "The woman threw the ball." How do Greeks know what word is nominative, accusative and so forth? Each word has a different word ending.

There are 3 genders, 4 cases, plus plural and singular. A typical chart for one word, say, the word "the," has 17 different versions. Here are the endings for the word "the," transliterated into English pronunciation, and number two, the letters in Greek.

___________________Singular_______________
Gender Masc Feminine Neuter
Cases
Nom. ho hey taw
Genitive tou teys tou
dative toe tey toe
accusative ton teyn taw

____________________Plural___________________
Nom/Voc hoi high tah
Genitive tone tone tone
Dative tois tais tois
Acc. tous tas tah

View attachment 226548

Any noun or adjective will have the same endings as "the" more or less. τιμἠ, ἡς, ἠ is the feminine. If we use the genitive form, it will turn into τιμἠς. Αdd an adjective like "great" and it will take the same ἡς. You can take the phrase "of the great ending" and put it at the front, the middle or the back, and it will always be describing possession.

So, unfortunately, the KJV translation committee either didn't know this, or King James told it to it his way, or not at all. (There are other areas that King James also told the committee to translate a certain way, even though it was wrong.)

Suffice it to say that you can often NOT translate word for word from Greek to English, or from German or French to English. In French, they say "la Maison blanche." "The house white" is the word for word, direct translation and that is bad English. So, instead we automatically say, "the white house." Not word for word, but dynamic to get the real meaning in real English.

The KJV does this all over the Greek text. It's how we get phrases like "coals of burning fire," instead of "burning coals" which would be a much better translation. Τherefore, if you don't use dynamic, you will get the wrong meaning over and over, by using word for word. Greek is NOT a language that can be translated directly into English. German, on the other hand, is very easy to translate word for word, because it has the noun/pronoun/adjective cases, too! Although verbs can continue to be tricky between languages.

I would be happy to argue the Greek with anyone who has a background in it. Don't bother copy and pasting from Blue Letter Bible or other sites. They are not wrong, but if you have no background in Greek, which is a complex language, you will be no more than a child repeating a word, without knowing what it means, the gender in Hebrew, the use in a sentence, the case and so on.

I wouldn't use the word 'offended'. I just feel sad that so many are arguing about words in a book.

Jesus is the Word.

That's a legit argument I have gotten many times from all ages of people. "If it's not in the text, can it be trusted as the truth?" Why is that childish?

Isaiah 34:16 Seek ye out of the book of the Lord, and read: no one of these shall fail, none shall want her mate: for my mouth it hath commanded, and his spirit it hath gathered them.

The Holy Spirit is the ONE that gives ALL the answers.... No one can learn, know or fully understand God’s Word except by The Holy Spirit.

Even if I knew Hebrew and Greek and could read ALL of the old manuscripts, I still would know NOTHING unless The Holy Spirit gave understanding.

Your attitude is quite unnecessary.

I just hate the thought that some wrong teaching might be making you worry that the Bible can't be trusted just because there are variances in manuscripts.

We don't need a cast iron guarantee that we have every word preserved in archaic English.
Christianity hasn't been stamped out in 2000 years despite relentless persecution & people are still interested in the Bible.

I did not intend any insult, I'm really only saying that I do trust the scholarship of the KJ translators, of course we all read which teachers and commentators which reflect our doctrinal views and above all we rely upon the good offices of the Holy Spirit.

no aggression intended.

My Bible CONTAINS the verse.

You have been blinded by your cultic beliefs.

What version do your have?

Gonna play were not gonna answer the question again?

We don't need a cast iron guarantee that we have every word preserved in archaic English.

You mistake my position

I think the texts used for modern translations are better than those used for the KJV but I believe the theological views of the folk that translated them greatly inferior.

"For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son that whosoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life" just reads differently to somebody who holds the doctrines of the reformation and to somebody who holds the modern doctrines of human freewill. Which is why some modern translators slip in little words like "whoever chooses to believe"

This word "chooses" is a commentary and a paraphrase.

Off Topic (Bible Versions) Not Divorce And Remarriage

Topic: WHICH Bible "version" Is Authorized By God?

I'll take the 60 God fearing Christian men, scholars uncompared, in the King James Translation