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Yes it is ancient Greek, the SBLGNT that we agreed to use.

No, the main body of the text ends with "age". καὶ ἰδοὺ ἐγὼ μεθ’ ὑμῶν εἰμι πάσας τὰς ἡμέρας ἕως τῆς συντελείας τοῦ αἰῶνος. In the previous post I copied the part from the footnote so you could see why they decided on what they did.

I disagree that they were baptizing in Jesus name only for the first four centuries after Jesus. We are talking about up until about 430 ad? For example, the didache is usually dated to about 50 to 120 ad. It uses the trinitarian formula...

Sure! The point is, though, that the Greek text we agreed on doesn't end with Amen.

do Jesus and the father have the same will? If not, how does that work if they are one? God, the true God. And they say that Jesus is God. But they do not say that Jesus is all of who God is. I believe what you're actually running into is the difficulty of talking about the trinity.

Yes, a person can worship God and at the same time not agree with everything God says. I think that's one of the things that Jesus is saying to the Samaritan woman.

Well, then we may have a problem, because we will be using two different versions of Matthew. What version of the Aramaic are you using, and which English translation? Of course, different people have different opinions. I do not see a reason to think those are Jesus' final words before...

Cool, thanks! Then Matthew ends with the word "age".

I gather from what you are saying that you feel the Matthew 28:19 has been seriously corrupted. Do you feel that the rest of the book is intact? which Greek text shall we use when we are looking at it so that we are both looking at the same thing? Do you feel that the uncorrupted version of...

The amen at the end of Matthew may have been added later. s. ΚΑΤΑ ΜΑΤΘΑΙΟΝ 28:20 αἰῶνος WH Treg NIV ] + Ἀμήν RP https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew+28&version=SBLGNT Jesus appeared over a of 40 days after his resurrection. Like it says at the end of the John, you can't write...

Well, of course, Matthew and Mark are traditional names attached to those documents. But assuming that Matthew was written by one of the 12 apostles, then he would have known about Galilee because he was there.

That's fine. As I said, it would probably be good for us to agree on a particular Greek text. I suggest the SBLGNT. What do you suggest?

The text I was talking about was Mark 5:41, the part about the "little girl I say to you arise".

I disagree that that is an obvious or necessary conclusion. But before we continue, I'm interested in reading your answer to an earlier question I asked, which is whether in your view the text of Matthew has been corrupted or book of Matthew was never accurate to begin with.

I agree that both Matthew and Mark mention Galilee. But is there something in Matthew that says that the discourse in chapter 28 takes place just before Jesus ascends?

It looks to me like Matthew doesn't say that Jesus ascended immediately in chapter 28. I believe Matthew doesn't mention Jesus ascending in that chapter. Here they are in Galilee Matthew 28: 16 But the eleven disciples went into Galilee, to the mountain where Jesus had sent them. 17...

Yes, technically the SBLGNT is less than 100 years old. But it was produced by looking at many ancient Greek texts to try to get back to what the autograph said. There are several critical editions around, I like this one because it is free to download. But do you believe that the majority of...

That's probably true, but are these the same scholars that say that most of what is in the Gospels didn't actually happen? Nestle's version has what people are used to seeing https://www.nestle-aland.com/en/read-na28-online/text/bibeltext/lesen/stelle/50/280001/289999/ But before we go too...

I believe Matthew 28 and Luke 24 are referring to two different events. After his resurrection, Jesus appears to his disciples over a period of 40 days. Matthew 28 takes place in Galilee, Luke 24 takes place near Jerusalem. I agree that Matthew 28 presents a different formulation for baptism...

It looks to me like it does occur in the Greek text. Which Greek text are you looking at? καὶ κρατήσας τῆς χειρὸς τοῦ παιδίου λέγει αὐτῇ· Ταλιθα [aw]κουμ, ὅ ἐστιν μεθερμηνευόμενον· Τὸ κοράσιον, σοὶ λέγω, [ax]ἔγειρε. https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Mark+5&version=SBLGNT