Is Knowledge of the Original Languages Necessary for KJV Believers?

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Easter never “became” Passover — the two were never the same thing; the confusion comes from Acts 12:4 in the KJV, where “Easter” is used to translate the Greek word pascha, which always means Passover, never a pagan spring festival. The early English translators used “Easter” because in their world it was the common English word for the entire Passover‑season, but historically and biblically, pascha is the Jewish feast commemorating the Exodus, not rabbits, eggs, or spring fertility rites. The eggs and rabbit come from Germanic/Anglo‑Saxon fertility symbolism tied to spring — the hare was a symbol of rapid reproduction, and eggs symbolized new life; these were cultural additions, not biblical ones, and they entered Christian practice through medieval Europe, not through Scripture. None of this has anything to do with the biblical Passover, which is anchored in Exodus 12 and fulfilled in Christ (1 Cor 5:7). The world‑system move was simple: merge a biblical feast with local spring customs, then call the whole thing “Easter,” but the NT never uses that word, never commands the holiday, and never connects rabbits or eggs to the resurrection.
I am glad we can agree on this. Easter is just an archaic word for the weekly Passover celebration, also known as the days of unleavened bread. While most know that the Passover, and the Feast of Unleavened Bread are recognized as specific days (Nisan the 14th and Nisan the 15th), they are not aware that they can also refer to the whole weekly celebration, too (which includes Nisan the 14th and Nisan the 15th). The beginning of the eating of unleavened bread also started on the day of Passover, too. This is where many drop the ball and just do not read or believe what was said in Exodus 12.

The whole pagan Easter thing came later with the Germans. The Germans carried over their pagan rabbit tradition (that became the modern day bunny celebration) over here to the United States. They also did the same in Brazil, too.



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1769 KJV - A1-Z26

Genesis One - One = 146

Verse 1 | Genesis 1:1 = 2 _ (3) 3 - 2nd prime - (5) 5

In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth. = 411
____

Verse 146 = 11 | Genesis 6:8 = 14 _(25) 7

But Noah found grace in the eyes of the LORD.

Verse 411 = 6 | Genesis 17:13 = 30 _ (36) 9 ____ 3x12

He that is born in thy house, and he that is bought with thy money, must needs be circumcised: and My covenant shall be in your flesh for an everlasting covenant.

146 + 411 = Verse 557 = 17 | Genesis 22:9 = 31 _ (48) 12 = 3 ____ 4x12

And they came to the place which God had told him of; and Abraham built an altar there, and laid the wood in order, and bound Isaac his son, and laid him on the altar upon the wood.

Verse 102 = 3 | Genesis 4:22 = 26 _ (29) 11 = 2 - 10th prime 1 - (39) 12 = 3

And Zillah, she also bare Tubalcain, an instructer of every artificer in brass and iron: and the sister of Tubalcain was Naamah.

557 + 102 = Verse 659 = 20 | Genesis 24:67 = 91 _ (111) 3

And Isaac brought her into his mother Sarah's tent, and took Rebekah, and she became his wife; and he loved her: and Isaac was comforted after his mother's death.

Verse 120 = 3 | Genesis 5:14 = 19 _ (22) 4

And all the days of Cainan were nine hundred and ten years: and he died.

659 + 120 = Verse 779 = 23 | Genesis 28:5 = 33 _ (56) 11 = 2

And Isaac sent away Jacob: and he went to Padanaram unto Laban, son of Bethuel the Syrian, the brother of Rebekah, Jacob's and Esau's mother.

3+7+9+3+2+3+4+2 (33) 6

Primes
2+10 (12) 3

557 = 102nd prime
659 =120th prime = 10x12

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Most of Christianity and Modern scholarship has conditioned people to believe this. So it's not surprising you hold to this view. Any supposed claims of errors in the KJV by the Bible correctors of our day I have explained many times. Generally my apologetics or explanations go ignored because they are caught in the web of deception in their post modernist approach to the Bible. Also, when I point out the horrible changes in Modern English Bibles and the Critical Text, they simply downplay them or ignore them, as well. Yes, I am aware that there are bible correctors even in the Majority Text camps, and even those who say the are KJV preferred.

Anyway, if there is no perfect word or standard we can have, then man becomes the ultimate authority and not God. The Bible actually prophecies about how there would be a book of the Lord in the end times.

Blah blah blah.......
Actually, I was "conditioned" to believe the nonsense that the KJV itself is perfect and inspired, and I was stuck on that for literally decades. Thankfully was able to emerge from that fog. Don't get me wrong, I believe the KJV is probably the most accurate and honest translation we have in English, but it has issues.

E.g., Do you hold to the view that all of the genealogies recorded in Genesis 11 of the KJV are "perfect" and that Shem outlived Abraham? All "modern" translations whose OTs have been derived from the Masoretic are missing 650 years from those genealogies, which totally distorts the reality of the Genesis narrative and is a potential stumbling block to non-believers, and that's by design.

Here's a good video on the subject. I doubt you'll watch it, because I know how stubborn KJV-onlyists can be since I used to be one, but whether you do or not, you should at least watch the final two minutes. Don't let the title of the video confuse you, because it's not the main premise of the video.

 
Masoretic Text - 1769 KJV - A1-Z26

ביום ההוא יהיה מזבח ליהוה בתוך ארץ מצרים ומצבה אצל גבולה ליהוה

Hebrew Value 1683

Verse 18024 | Isaiah 19:19

In that day shall there be an Altar to the LORD in the midst of the land of Egypt, and a Pillar at the border thereof to the LORD. = 1099

Verse 1683 = 18 |

Verse 1099 = 19 |

1683 + 1099 = Verse 2782 = 19 |

והיה לאות ולעד ליהוה צבאות בארץ מצרים כי יצעקו אל יהוה מפני לחצים וישלח להם מושיע ורב והצילם

Hebrew Value 3766

Verse 18025 | Isaiah 19:20

And IT shall be for a sign and for a witness unto the LORD of Hosts in the land of Egypt: for they shall cry unto the LORD because of the oppressors, and He shall send them a Saviour, and a great one, and He shall deliver them. = 2004

Verse 3766 = 22 |

Verse 2004 = 6 |

3766 + 2004 = Verse 5770 = 19 |

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ביום ההוא יהיה מזבח ליהוה בתוך ארץ מצרים ומצבה אצל גבולה ליהוה

Hebrew Value 1683

Verse 18024 = 15 | Isaiah 19:19 = 38 _ (53) 8 - 16th prime 7 - (69) 15 = 6

In that day shall there be an Altar to the LORD in the midst of the land of Egypt, and a Pillar at the border thereof to the LORD. = 1099

Verse 1683 = 18 | Exodus 6:27 = 33 _ (51) 6

These are they which spake to Pharaoh king of Egypt, to bring out the children of Israel from Egypt: these are that Moses and Aaron.

Verse 1099 = 19 | Genesis 37:15 = 52 _ (71) 8 - 20th prime 2 - (91) 10 = 1

And a certain man found him, and, behold, he was wandering in the field: and the man asked him, saying, What seekest thou?

1683 + 1099 = Verse 2782 = 19 | Leviticus 3:3 = 6 _ (25) 7

And he shall offer of the sacrifice of the peace offering an offering made by fire unto the LORD; the fat that covereth the inwards, and all the fat that is upon the inwards,

8+6+8+7 (29) 11 = 2 - 10th prime 1 (39) 12 = 3

והיה לאות ולעד ליהוה צבאות בארץ מצרים כי יצעקו אל יהוה מפני לחצים וישלח להם מושיע ורב והצילם

Hebrew Value 3766

Verse 18025 = 16 | Isaiah 19:20 = 39 _ (55) 10 = 1

And IT shall be for a sign and for a witness unto the LORD of hosts in the land of Egypt: for they shall cry unto the LORD because of the oppressors, and He shall send them a Saviour, and a great one, and He shall deliver them. = 2004

Verse 3766 = 22 | Numbers 4:22 = 26 _ (48) 12 = 3

Take also the sum of the sons of Gershon, throughout the houses of their fathers, by their families;

Verse 2004 = 6 | Exodus 18:4 = 22 _ (28) 10 = 1

And the name of the other was Eliezer; for the God of my father, said He, was mine help, and delivered me from the sword of Pharaoh:

3766 + 2004 = Verse 5770 = 19 | Deuteronmy 32:11 = 43 _ (62) 8

As an eagle stirreth up her nest, fluttereth over her young, spreadeth abroad her wings, taketh them, beareth them on her wings:

1+3+1+8 (13) 4 - 6th prime - (19) 10 = 1

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The Great Pyramid contains a complex network of inner passages, chambers, and shafts

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Masoretic Text - every word value and total verse value in Hebrew and Aramaic - 1769 KJV translation
Morphological Greek Text - every word value and total verse value in Greek - 1769 KJV translation
 
And besides, I don't want God's word to sound modern. Scripture needs to go against the modern grain of today. English keeps getting watered down, even slang. Soon enough, there will be a meme bible version to fit the needs of future generations. Instead of changing the bible to fit our needs, let's allow the bible to change us for God's sake.
When I was first saved, the KJV was the only Bible used from the pulpit. Preachers would spend a good deal of time explaining what the KJV meant. It was like listening to an interpreter. I have no inclination to learn new languages. So I did not learn Hebrew or Greek. There are many others who already know those languages so i don't have to.

I use Bible Hub. There are about 40 versions and several literal translations as well. I have no need to learn a language that is barely comprehensible to me. I've somehow managed to survive as a believer for 54 years without the KJV. And I am certain of this much: Lord Jesus does not talk to me in theses and thous.

God's word is a Person, His name is Jesus. He spoke Aramaic and His Bible was written in Hebrew. Do you suggest that we go back to the first century languages? That includes Greek, of course.​
 
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Elizabethan English is not the same as modern English. I'm English so I do know what I'm talking about. One simple example. "Conversation" these days means talking to people. In Elizabethan English, it meant a way of life. So Psalm 50:23 means something entirely different from what the KJV states.

How about this gem? "My beloved put in his hand by the hole of the door, and my bowels were moved for him." Song of Solomon 5:4

or "And Joseph made haste; for his bowels did yearn upon his brother: and he sought where to weep; and he entered into his chamber, and wept there." Genesis 43:30

You are entitled to read whatever version suits you. But don't kid yourself that the KJV is superior to any other version. People don't necessarily need to know Greek and Hebrew to make sense of the KJV. They need to translate Elizabethan English to modern English. And guess what? You can buy Bibles that have done that.​
The prose of the KJV is not how they spoke, it's how the translation was rendered. Read the dedication some time and you'll see they spoke very similar in the 17th century as many people still do today, they were just better educated back then.
 
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Actually, I was "conditioned" to believe the nonsense that the KJV itself is perfect and inspired, and I was stuck on that for literally decades. Thankfully was able to emerge from that fog. Don't get me wrong, I believe the KJV is probably the most accurate and honest translation we have in English, but it has issues.
Well, I am not saying the KJV is on the same level as the inspired Hebrew and Greek. However, I do see the KJV as a providential and divinely guided translation that was refined over several KJV editions (Note: The 1638 KJV may be the last edition of refinement where the English words were corrected to match the underlying Hebrew and Greek). The KJV is a 100% accurate translation in 1600s English. The Hebrew and Greek that underlies the KJV are the inspired words of God. If this is not the case, then we get to sit in the seat of God and determine what the Lord said and did not say. Such a belief would not be duplicatable. No body of believers can ever really be held accountable to His words because there is always some silly moron who is going to correct it somewhere and none of these Bible correctors can ever fully agree on what is in the Bible and out of it. Hence, they really don't have a Bible, but they have something more like a piece of meat to be chopped up and diced real nice.

The Bible itself makes claims about itself in that His words are pure words, and that they will be preserved forever. So, basically you just lost faith in those many verses due to a passage or verse you believed to be in error (but it could have an explanation that you are unaware of). Some will not believe because they need to put their hands in Christ's side or until they see the nail prints in His hands. However, Jesus says blessed are those who believe and yet don't see.


E.g., Do you hold to the view that all of the genealogies recorded in Genesis 11 of the KJV are "perfect" and that Shem outlived Abraham? All "modern" translations whose OTs have been derived from the Masoretic are missing 650 years from those genealogies, which totally distorts the reality of the Genesis narrative and is a potential stumbling block to non-believers, and that's by design.

Here's a good video on the subject. I doubt you'll watch it, because I know how stubborn KJV-onlyists can be since I used to be one, but whether you do or not, you should at least watch the final two minutes. Don't let the title of the video confuse you, because it's not the main premise of the video.

I had ChatGPT analyze the video transcript, including the final two minutes. It did not identify any demonstrated error in Genesis 11 of the KJV or its underlying Hebrew. Those final minutes were simply Frank Turek giving a general illustration about comparing manuscripts. That does not prove the claim that 650 years were removed from Genesis 11.

The presenter prefers the LXX’s numbers, yet he does not regard the LXX as infallible. He even rejects part of its genealogy and tells viewers to ignore it. So what complete Bible does he actually accept as his authority? He picks and chooses readings to construct the chronology he prefers.

His objections about Shem’s lifespan and grief are based on what he feels should have happened. How stupid do you have to be to believe this garbage? His claim that Jewish scribes deliberately altered the genealogy to undermine Christianity is conjecture. Neither establishes an error. Also, not all LXX's even say the same thing. Has he truly read all of them? Did Jesus quote the LXX? No. He spoke of jots and tittles which is Hebrew.

This is another attempt to correct the Bible by piecing together a jigsaw puzzle of preferred readings in your own mind. This is just post modernist insanity that ignores the promises of God. The KJV and its underlying Hebrew are not shown to be erroneous merely because he prefers a different chronology because of Frank's desire to slice up the Bible like a piece of meat. Sorry, I trust Jesus when He says, “Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled” (Matthew 5:18).



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When I was first saved, the KJV was the only Bible used from the pulpit. Preachers would spend a good deal of time explaining what the KJV meant. It was like listening to an interpreter. I have no inclination to learn new languages. So I did not learn Hebrew or Greek. There are many others who already know those languages so i don't have to.

I use Bible Hub. There are about 40 versions and several literal translations as well. I have no need to learn a language that is barely comprehensible to me. I've somehow managed to survive as a believer for 54 years without the KJV. And I am certain of this much: Lord Jesus does not talk to me in theses and thous.

God's word is a Person, His name is Jesus. He spoke Aramaic and His Bible was written in Hebrew. Do you suggest that we go back to the first century languages? That includes Greek, of course.​
The problem is that even one NIV edition says even more heretical things in the newer NIV edition. Not all modernist Bibles agree and they teach false doctrines which people I have talked with online actually believe. They believe these dumb doctrines because of these false Bibles. But lets not the pesky facts get in the way of all the fake news stories that the adherents of the Modern Bible Movement like to promote and repeat. The Modern Bible Movement is so obviously false its not even funny. We really cannot take it seriously. Since 1881, you guys still don't have a Bible or a settled text. Everyone gets to slice and dice up the Bible and have their own preferred Phantom Bible that exists only in their own mind. One eclectic Bible chopper does not agree with the other one. There is no standard. No single text you can agree on. Paul says, "that ye all speak the same thing," (1 Corinthians 1:10).

How is that possible in the Modern Bible Movement or the "Yea, hath God said" society?
The more I talk with Originals Onlyists the more I am convinced we are living in the last days.



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The problem is that even one NIV edition says even more heretical things in the newer NIV edition. Not all modernist Bibles agree and they teach false doctrines which people I have talked with online actually believe. They believe these dumb doctrines because of these false Bibles. But lets not the pesky facts get in the way of all the fake news stories that the adherents of the Modern Bible Movement like to promote and repeat. The Modern Bible Movement is so obviously false its not even funny. We really cannot take it seriously. Since 1881, you guys still don't have a Bible or a settled text. Everyone gets to slice and dice up the Bible and have their own preferred Phantom Bible that exists only in their own mind. One eclectic Bible chopper does not agree with the other one. There is no standard. No single text you can agree on. Paul says, "that ye all speak the same thing," (1 Corinthians 1:10).

How is that possible in the Modern Bible Movement or the "Yea, hath God said" society?
The more I talk with Originals Onlyists the more I am convinced we are living in the last days.



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What a crock. I read many different versions. My go to these days is the Berean. There are about 40 versions in Bible Hub. There are plenty of distinctions without difference. Greek words have synonyms or the word depends on context. For example, words such as heal and deliver are the same word in Greek. Likewise soul and life. Translators depend on context. The differences are minimal and problems lie only in the mind of KJV zealots.

KJV zealots annoy me. If anyone wants to read the KJV, fine. I did not spend my childhood listening to the KJV and I was not taught Elizabethan English in school. I learned more Latin than Shakespeare. Studying different versions has done me no harm. If you really mean what you say, go the whole hog and learn Greek and Hebrew.

Do you not realise that the KJV was based on previous versions, including the Latin Vulgate? Look into the history. It was not translated directly from the original texts. God did not send the KJV to King James via an angel. Paul did not use the KJV. It has no more authority than any other translation.​
 
The prose of the KJV is not how they spoke, it's how the translation was rendered. Read the dedication some time and you'll see they spoke very similar in the 17th century as many people still do today, they were just better educated back then.
That makes the KJV even less reliable. It presents scripture in language that makes it artificially appear "spiritual". It's one of the problems with English generally. Britain has been invaded many times. A lot of English words are of French origin. Some pronunciations are the result of snobbery. "You say tomayto, he says tomahto". The original in English was the way Americans pronounce it. The snobs in England did not want to sound like the peasants so they changed pronunciation.

Knowing King James did not prevent cults from arising. Jehovah Witnesses used the King James at first. So did Seventh Day Adventists. People were not better educated in the 17th century. It's only in the last few decades that the education system has been fully taken over by Satan. Many of the top universities were founded by believers. You would never know that from the education that they offer now.​
 
Easter never “became” Passover — the two were never the same thing; the confusion comes from Acts 12:4 in the KJV, where “Easter” is used to translate the Greek word pascha, which always means Passover, never a pagan spring festival.
You are correct, Easter does not mean Passover, but the fulfillment of what the Passover represented, Christ, our Passover Lamb. Easter is not a pagan festival, but the NT celebration of Christ fulfilling the Passover. After the resurrection, there is no need for the Passover, hence, a new word for a new meaning for the word Pascha.
 
You are correct, Easter does not mean Passover, but the fulfillment of what the Passover represented, Christ, our Passover Lamb. Easter is not a pagan festival, but the NT celebration of Christ fulfilling the Passover. After the resurrection, there is no need for the Passover, hence, a new word for a new meaning for the word Pascha.
You are moving from theology to lexicography.
I agree that Christ is our Passover (1 Cor. 5:7) and that His death and resurrection fulfilled what the Passover foreshadowed.
However, none of that changes the meaning of the Greek word pascha.
The question is not whether Christ fulfilled Passover, but what Luke wrote in Acts 12:4.
Everywhere else in the New Testament, pascha refers to Passover.
The burden is on you to show a single place where pascha means a post-resurrection Christian celebration rather than the Jewish Passover.
Simply stating that Christ fulfilled Passover does not establish a new meaning for the word.
Christ's fulfillment of Passover is theology.
The meaning of pascha is lexicography.
One does not automatically determine the other.
So even if Christians later used "Pascha" to celebrate Christ's resurrection, it does not follow that Luke used pascha in Acts 12:4 to mean Easter instead of Passover. The fulfillment of Passover and the meaning of the word pascha are two separate questions.
 
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Everywhere else in the New Testament, pascha refers to Passover.
The word "passover" does occur in 1 Corinthians 5:7 "...For even Christ our passover is sacrificed for us." and in Hebrews 11:28 - "Through faith he kept the passover, and the sprinkling of blood, lest he that destroyed the firstborn should touch them." but in both cases the verses are referring to a time and an event PREVIOUS TO the Resurrection of our Lord. Acts 12:4 is the ONLY time the word pascha is used when it refers to a time and an event that occurs AFTER the Resurrection.
 
The word "passover" does occur in 1 Corinthians 5:7 "...For even Christ our passover is sacrificed for us." and in Hebrews 11:28 - "Through faith he kept the passover, and the sprinkling of blood, lest he that destroyed the firstborn should touch them." but in both cases the verses are referring to a time and an event PREVIOUS TO the Resurrection of our Lord. Acts 12:4 is the ONLY time the word pascha is used when it refers to a time and an event that occurs AFTER the Resurrection.
That argument assumes the resurrection changed the meaning of pascha, but where is the evidence for that in the text?
Acts 12:4 occurring after the resurrection does not automatically give pascha a new definition.
Luke is recording an event during the days of Herod, in a Jewish setting, where the annual Passover feast was still being observed.
The question is not when Acts was written or when the event occurred, but what the word pascha meant to Luke and his readers.
Simply being the only post-resurrection occurrence proves nothing.
You still need evidence that pascha changed from "Passover" to "Easter."
Otherwise, the normal rule of interpretation applies: the word means what it means everywhere else unless the context clearly indicates otherwise. Acts 12:4 does not do that.
 
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Apparently at least as stupid as me.
Best wishes to you and ChatGPT.
I do strive not to attack the person but to attack the belief. So my apologies for letting my personal belief about post-modernist Bible Movement type believers slip through here. While I may see many (not all) in this movement as unintelligent, unwise, unbiblical, and disingenuous, that does not mean that I don't care for their soul and love them in Christ. However, it does get frustrating to show people the error of their ways repeatedly when they just refuse to see the obvious.

You wouldn't test-fly a plane if it was built on conflicting schematics. You wouldn't buy a house that was based on multiple conflicting contracts. So then why do so with a book that deals with your very soul? Why ignore tons of verses that speak about the purity and preservation and certainty of God's words? Why ignore the silence about the Modernistic idea of Scripture within the pages of the Bible itself? Meaning, there is no good case you can make that the Bible would be preserved in the form of errors and that it was perfectly normal for your average person to deal with textual variants and for everyone to have a "Pick-And-Choose-Your-Own-Adventure-Bible."

On the contrary, Jesus said the words "it is written" many times. He made an appeal to the authority of Scripture as being finalized and settled. If you know Bible history, you would know that for hundreds of years, a good majority believed the Bible (the KJV). Memorization and unity over one text existed. Now, you have division and many questioning what God's word even is. So just looking at the fruit, the KJV has demonstrated something unique and special in history.

As for AI, like ChatGPT, Claude, and Perplexity: They are just tools like anything else. They should never replace regular Bible reading or Bible study. They are only additional aids to find other verses or historical facts about the Bible that you can verify from books and articles written by humans long before AI existed. If somebody uses ChatGPT or other AIs without checking the links and verifying the sources, then I would condemn that strongly.

So just speaking negatively against a person using AI in their search for the truth does not really qualify as a sufficient means to undermine anyone's credibility or research, especially if they painstakingly seek to provide links that they verified and desire for others to look into those links as well. If the AIs never gave me links to real books and articles, I would not use them. But that's what you make my use of AI sound like, as if I were careless enough to trust whatever answer it gives me. Nothing could be further from the truth.

So when you say, "you wish me and AI the best of wishes," I would never say that to another person who uses AI responsibily. I know one day AI will be gone when God's kingdom is forever established on the new Earth, and most likely in the 1,000-year reign of Christ as well. There will be no cars or computers that we use many times throughout the day. Things will go back to a simpler and pure way of interacting. There will be no need to help others find the truth because they already have it.



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What a crock. I read many different versions. My go to these days is the Berean. There are about 40 versions in Bible Hub. There are plenty of distinctions without difference. Greek words have synonyms or the word depends on context. For example, words such as heal and deliver are the same word in Greek. Likewise soul and life. Translators depend on context. The differences are minimal and problems lie only in the mind of KJV zealots.

KJV zealots annoy me. If anyone wants to read the KJV, fine. I did not spend my childhood listening to the KJV and I was not taught Elizabethan English in school. I learned more Latin than Shakespeare. Studying different versions has done me no harm. If you really mean what you say, go the whole hog and learn Greek and Hebrew.

Do you not realise that the KJV was based on previous versions, including the Latin Vulgate? Look into the history. It was not translated directly from the original texts. God did not send the KJV to King James via an angel. Paul did not use the KJV. It has no more authority than any other translation.​
It appears that you have no clue as to what I am talking about.

Here is just a taste of the insanity in the Modern Bible Movement:

001 Shape_Shifter_Modern_Bibles.png

The NIV editions sometimes differ greatly. If you use it, how do you decide which NIV to use?

#1. Mark 1:41 – “Compassion” changed to “Indignation:”

KJV:
“And Jesus, moved with compassion, put forth his hand, and touched him, and saith unto him, I will; be thou clean.”

NIV 1984: “Filled with compassion, Jesus reached out his hand and touched the man. 'I am willing,' he said. 'Be clean.'”

NIV 2011: “Jesus was indignant. He reached out his hand and touched the man. 'I am willing,' he said. 'Be clean.'”

Explanation: The King James Bible and the 1984 NIV show Jesus healing out of compassion. The 2011 NIV says He healed the man in anger. The passage itself gives no cause for indignation, and Matthew 5:22 warns that anger without cause brings danger of judgment. This wording risks portraying Jesus as sinning, whereas the KJV preserves His sinless character.


#2. Psalm 8:5 – Singular “him” changed to plural “them:”

KJV:
“For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels, and hast crowned him with glory and honour.”

NIV 1984: “You made him a little lower than the heavenly beings and crowned him with glory and honor.”

NIV 2011: “You have made them a little lower than the angels and crowned them with glory and honor.”

Explanation: The KJV’s singular pronoun points to Christ and is quoted as such in Hebrews 2:6–9. The 2011 NIV turns the verse into a generic statement about humanity, obscuring this prophetic reference to Jesus.


#3. Ezra 6:11 – “Alter” changed to “Defies: “

KJV:
“Also I have made a decree, that whosoever shall alter this word, let timber be pulled down from his house...”

NIV 1984: “Furthermore, I decree that if anyone changes this edict, a beam is to be pulled from his house...”

NIV 2011: “Furthermore, I decree that if anyone defies this edict, a beam is to be pulled from their house...”

Explanation: The KJV warns against altering or changing the decree, a clear parallel to tampering with God’s Word. The NIV 2011 weakens this by focusing on defiance, which can occur without changing any words, thus lessening the warning against textual corruption.


#4. Psalm 68:11 – Insertion of “the women:”

KJV:
“The Lord gave the word: great was the company of those that published it.”

NIV 1984: “The Lord announced the word, and great was the company of those who proclaimed it.”

NIV 2011: “The Lord announces the word, and the women who proclaim it are a mighty throng.”

Explanation: The Hebrew text does not specify gender. The 2011 NIV inserts “the women,” reflecting a feminist agenda rather than faithful translation. The KJV keeps the statement broad and neutral as originally intended.


#5. Ephesians 2:3 – “Children of Wrath” changed to “Deserving of Wrath:”

KJV:
…and were by nature the children of wrath, even as others.

NIV 1984: …and were by nature objects of wrath, like the rest.

NIV 2011: …and we were by nature deserving of wrath, like the rest.

Explanation: “Children of wrath” emphasizes the inherited sin nature due to Adam’s fall. “Deserving of wrath” shifts attention to personal behavior, reducing the focus on our fallen condition and the depth of our need for redemption.


#6. Nahum 3:13 – “Women” changed to “Weaklings:”

KJV:
“Behold, thy people in the midst of thee are women: the gates of thy land shall be set wide open unto thine enemies...”

NIV 1984: “Look at your troops, they are all women. The gates of your land are wide open to your enemies...”

NIV 2011: “Look at your troops, they are all weaklings. The gates of your land are wide open to your enemies...”

Explanation: The KJV uses women as a vivid metaphor for military weakness, reflecting the biological fact that men are generally stronger than women. The 2011 NIV replaces the image with “weaklings,” to promote a feminist agenda and eliminate gender distinctions.


#7. Philippians 4:13 – “All things” changed to “All this: “

KJV:
“I can do all things through Christ which strengtheneth me.”

NIV 1984: “I can do everything through him who gives me strength.”

NIV 2011: “I can do all this through him who gives me strength.”

Explanation: The KJV and 1984 NIV express broad confidence that Christ enables believers in every challenge. The 2011 NIV narrows the scope to “all this,” limiting the promise to Paul’s immediate context and weakening the verse’s encouragement for all situations.


#8. Malachi 4:6 – “Fathers” changed to “Parents:”

KJV:
“And he shall turn the heart of the fathers to the children, and the heart of the children to their fathers...”

NIV 1984: “He will turn the hearts of the fathers to their children, and the hearts of the children to their fathers...”

NIV 2011: “He will turn the hearts of the parents to their children, and the hearts of the children to their parents...”

Explanation: The KJV’s reference to “fathers” ties directly to the fulfillment prophecy in Luke 1:17, which states that John the Baptist would go before the Lord “to turn the hearts of the fathers to the children.” Replacing “fathers” with “parents” erases this prophetic connection and reflects a gender-neutral modern influence.


#9. Romans 10:4 – “End of the Law” changed to “Culmination of the Law:”

KJV:
“For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.”

NIV 1984: “Christ is the end of the law so that there may be righteousness for everyone who believes.”

NIV 2011: “Christ is the culmination of the law so that there may be righteousness for everyone who believes.”

Explanation: “End” means Christ brought the Mosaic covenant to a complete conclusion as a means of righteousness. “Culmination” suggests only a high point. Let me illustrate an example: “Marriage is the culmination of courtship.” In other words, culmination does not end the relationship. It leads into a new phase. But in the case of the Mosaic Law, Christ did not simply fulfill it as a high point in a continuing journey. He brought the Mosaic covenant to a complete end for righteousness.


#10. Psalm 138:2 – “Word” changed to “Solemn Decree” and “Name” changed to “Fame:”

KJV:
“for Thou hast magnified Thy word above all Thy name.”

NIV 1984: “for you have exalted above all things your name and your word.”

NIV 2011: “for you have so exalted your solemn decree that it surpasses your fame.”

Explanation: The KJV proclaims that God magnifies His Word above His Name, stressing the supreme authority of Scripture. The 2011 NIV replaces “word” with “solemn decree” and “name” with “fame,” dulling the exaltation of Scripture and diminishing the reverence attached to God’s Name.


#11. Psalm 96:13 – “Truth” changed to “Faithfulness:”

KJV:
“Before the LORD: for he cometh, for he cometh to judge the earth: he shall judge the world with righteousness, and the people with his truth.”

NIV 1984: “They will sing before the LORD, for he comes, he comes to judge the earth. He will judge the world in righteousness and the peoples in his truth.”

NIV 2011: “Let all creation rejoice before the LORD, for he comes, he comes to judge the earth. He will judge the world in righteousness and the peoples in his faithfulness.”

Explanation: The King James Bible and the 1984 NIV both affirm that God will judge the people with His truth. This is a vital doctrinal point. John 17:17 says, “Thy word is truth,” showing that truth refers to God’s Word. So this verse speaks of God judging the world in righteousness by the standard of His written Word, the Scriptures. The 2011 NIV changes “truth” to “faithfulness,” which weakens the doctrinal clarity. While faithfulness is a divine quality, it does not communicate the objective standard of judgment. This change downplays the authority of Scripture as the measure by which God will judge all people.





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#1. Mark 1:41 – “Compassion” changed to “Indignation:”

KJV:
“And Jesus, moved with compassion, put forth his hand, and touched him, and saith unto him, I will; be thou clean.”

NIV 1984: “Filled with compassion, Jesus reached out his hand and touched the man. 'I am willing,' he said. 'Be clean.'”

NIV 2011: “Jesus was indignant. He reached out his hand and touched the man. 'I am willing,' he said. 'Be clean.'”

Explanation: The King James Bible and the 1984 NIV show Jesus healing out of compassion. The 2011 NIV says He healed the man in anger. The passage itself gives no cause for indignation, and Matthew 5:22 warns that anger without cause brings danger of judgment. This wording risks portraying Jesus as sinning, whereas the KJV preserves His sinless character.
A thoughtful reader will understand that Jesus was indignant at the Pharisees but compassionate toward the lame man.

The problem with your approach is that you consistently view every other version through a veil of suspicion and jump on every opportunity to throw shade. At the same time you come up with verbose excuses for every anomaly in the KJV.

You are inconsistent at best and a raving hypocrite at worst.