MMDI never said that protestants were perfect. I was just sharing my personal experience that I had in the Roman Catholic church.
In regard to John 3:36, those who do not obey the Son are those who do not believe in/on the Son. The KJV renders this same verse as: He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that "believeth not the Son" shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him. The NIV says "rejects the Son" and the HCSB says, "refuses to believe in the Son."
The Greek word translated as "believeth not" in that verse is apeitheo and it means: "not believe, disobedient, obey not, unbelieving." Strong’s definition of apeitheo is "to disbelieve willfully and perversely." In the context of 3:36, to "not obey the Son" means to reject the Son by refusing to believe in the Son. This is in harmony with (John 3:15,16,18; 6:40,47; 11:25,26)
Had to leave yesterday and can't remember which posts I've addressed....and I have too many alerts to g back and check.
Sorry if this is a repeat.
You're familiar with the Greek and so am I to a VERY LIMITED extent.
You're referencing John 3:36
Let's try to understand this,,,,
John 3:36 makes two statements:
1. Those who believe will be saved.
2. Those who do not obey will be lost.
Since you like the Greek...let's use it in this case.
John 3:36
36 "He who believes in the Son has eternal life; but he who does not obey the Son will not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him."
That's the NASB...which I use because it strives for a word by word translation.
The words in question are BELIEVES ...................... he who believes.
and
OBEY ...............................he who does not obey.
In Greek the words BELIEVE and OBEY are two different words.
BELIEVES
PISTEUON ....... TO ENTRUST
STRONG'S 4100
Instead
OBEY
APEITHON......TO DISOBEY
STRONG'S 544
it's clear that John 3:36 is stating that those that BELIEVE must also OBEY.
If this were a stand alone verse....we could debate it..,.
but IT IS NOT.
The NT teaches obedience throughout and I've psoted many passages,
including what Jesus Himself taught.
It would really be nice if you looked into this and explained why you cannot accept this explanation....
and I've been trying for years now.
How would you explain the fact that two different words are used?