Your whole argument is founded upon the commonly-taught but false premise that there is prophesied to be someone called "the antichrist." But Jesus Himself prophesied otherwise:
That above idea comes from those who don't study their Bible thoroughly.
The Matthew 24:5 verse about the "many" that would come in Christ's name is about the "
many antichrists" which Apostle John mentioned in 1 John 2:18. That is not about 'the'... "
antichrist" that John also mentioned though.
Thus you missed that 1 John 2:18 verse has both a singular tense "
antichrist", and mention of the plural "
many antichrists". Not only that, but John said the brethren had already heard that "
antichrist" shall come. Where and when did they first hear about that, ask yourself, because that's another Bible point you have also obviously missed.
Thus this singular antichrist and plural antichrists theme is not just something that John mentioned; Jesus pointed to it also, as did Apostle Paul.
1. Matthew 24:5 is about the
"many antichrists" that would come and say they are Christ. History has already had many of those false ones, even some today that claim that. Yet they have no power to perform great signs and wonders, only claim they are Christ. Jesus gave this warning to not let any man deceive us as one of the first SIGNS in His Olivet discourse, simply because those SIGNS follow the order of the Seals of Revelation 6, and the 1st Seal is a warning about the false one riding on a white horse to mimic His coming is given first.
2. Matthew 24:23-26, is about the singular "
antichrist" that will have power to perform great signs and wonders, that IF it were possible, would deceive even Christ's very elect. The KJV translators brought the Greek word
pseudochristos into English as "
false Christs", as if it were plural, but the context of the 23rd & 26th verses are in the singular tense. That means Lord Jesus was pointing to a singular... false one coming that will have power to deceive using those great signs and wonders. That one is totally different than the "
many" in Matt.24:5. Dr. James Strong in his
Strong's Exhaustive Concordance translated Greek
pseudochristos as
"a spurious Messiah" (NT:5580). So Dr. Strong understood this difference.
The above means that Lord Jesus actually did... point to both the singular "
antichrist" working great signs and miracles that John said shall come, and the "
many antichrists" that will only claim to be Christ.
In 2 Thessalonians 2, Apostle Paul covered the same two, but in passing about the "
many antichrists".
1. 2 Thess.2:3-4, 8, 9 -- is about the singular "
antichrist", coming to exalt himself in a stone temple in Jerusalem for the end, as God, and over all that is called God, or that is worshiped. That is the role of the false one coming to mimic Christ's future return.
2. 2 Thess.2:7 -- is about the "
many antichrists" of 1 John 2:18. But it is mentioned as a mystery.
2 Thess 2:7
7 For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.
KJV
That
"mystery of iniquity" is about the idea of the
"many antichrists" workers who work for the "
antichrist". It is a mystery because it has been going on for a long, long time, all the way back to Old Testament times with the
"workers of iniquity". In Genesis 3:15 is when it was first revealed about the two seeds, and in Matthew 13 with Jesus' parable of the 'tares' of the field is when it was explained by Lord Jesus.
So I recommend you go deeper in your Bible study on this, because men's doctrines often bypass this matter written in God's Word.