If you were to do a little research on the word "temple" you will find that the word "temple" is actually speaking of a real building/temple. Strongs and Thayer's Greek English Lexicon #G3485.
There is only one "man of sin" spoken of in all of the bible so maybe you can provide me with scripture that proves that the man of sin is not the antichrist. The Greek translation of the words "man of sin" is "lawless one" and there is only one "lawless one" mentioned in the Word of God.
Sorry if you want to go beyond the research tools I use but I never do commentaries because they are nothing more then another mans opinion. Besides I think your a Preterist and that doctrinal belief is full of holes, garbage and a waste of my time to have a conversation about. But I will say this much. According to Josephus there were about 600,000 Jews in Jerusalem during the Roman siege, but there were more then 6,000,000 Jewish people slaughtered during WW2 so the idea that the time of Jacobs Trouble was fulfilled in 70 A.D. has been proven to pale in comparison to the suffering of the Jewish people during WW2.
Mat 24:15 When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand
Mat 24:21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.
Matthew 24:15 and 24 prove that the destruction of Jerusalem by the Romans was not the time of Jacobs Trouble because in verse 21 it says there "will be great tribulation such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time no nor ever shall be" Since the Jewish people suffered far greater tribulation and loss of human life during WW2 then they did during 70AD this proves that the antichrist has not yet come and the time of great tribulation/time of Jacobs Trouble has not yet happened because the destruction spoken of in Mat 24 is far worse then what has historically happened to the Jewish people to this day and time.
There is only one "man of sin" spoken of in all of the bible so maybe you can provide me with scripture that proves that the man of sin is not the antichrist. The Greek translation of the words "man of sin" is "lawless one" and there is only one "lawless one" mentioned in the Word of God.
Sorry if you want to go beyond the research tools I use but I never do commentaries because they are nothing more then another mans opinion. Besides I think your a Preterist and that doctrinal belief is full of holes, garbage and a waste of my time to have a conversation about. But I will say this much. According to Josephus there were about 600,000 Jews in Jerusalem during the Roman siege, but there were more then 6,000,000 Jewish people slaughtered during WW2 so the idea that the time of Jacobs Trouble was fulfilled in 70 A.D. has been proven to pale in comparison to the suffering of the Jewish people during WW2.
Mat 24:15 When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand
Mat 24:21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.
Matthew 24:15 and 24 prove that the destruction of Jerusalem by the Romans was not the time of Jacobs Trouble because in verse 21 it says there "will be great tribulation such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time no nor ever shall be" Since the Jewish people suffered far greater tribulation and loss of human life during WW2 then they did during 70AD this proves that the antichrist has not yet come and the time of great tribulation/time of Jacobs Trouble has not yet happened because the destruction spoken of in Mat 24 is far worse then what has historically happened to the Jewish people to this day and time.
If you were to do a little research on the word "temple" you will find that the word "temple" is actually speaking of a real building/temple. Strongs and Thayer's Greek English Lexicon #G3485.
There is only one "man of sin" spoken of in all of the bible so maybe you can provide me with scripture that proves that the man of sin is not the antichrist. The Greek translation of the words "man of sin" is "lawless one" and there is only one "lawless one" mentioned in the Word of God.
because they are nothing more then another mans opinion. Besides I think your a Preterist and that doctrinal belief is full of holes, garbage and a waste of my time to have a conversation about.
According to Josephus there were about 600,000 Jews in Jerusalem during the Roman siege, but there were more then 6,000,000 Jewish people slaughtered during WW2 so the idea that the time of Jacobs Trouble was fulfilled in 70 A.D. has been proven to pale in comparison to the suffering of the Jewish people during WW2.
Matthew 24:15 and 24 prove that the destruction of Jerusalem by the Romans was not the time of Jacobs Trouble because in verse 21 it says there "will be great tribulation such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time no nor ever shall be" Since the Jewish people suffered far greater tribulation and loss of human life during WW2 then they did during 70AD this proves that the antichrist has not yet come and the time of great tribulation/time of Jacobs Trouble has not yet happened because the destruction spoken of in Mat 24 is far worse then what has historically happened to the Jewish people to this day and time.
20 “But when you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies, then know that its desolation is near. 21 Then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains, let those who are in the midst of her depart, and let not those who are in the country enter her. 22 For these are the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled. 23 But woe to those who are pregnant and to those who are nursing babies in those days! For there will be great distress in the land and wrath upon this people. 24 And they will fall by the edge of the sword, and be led away captive into all nations. And Jerusalem will be trampled by Gentiles until the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled.
Was it to happen in Europe or Judea? Most futurists don't even know why God would bring about their great tribulation. Was God angry at the Jews of the 1930s or was He more angry at those who killed His Son and His disciples? If you can't figure out this basic question, I can't help you.