Why Wasn't A Law Given By Which One Could Be Righteous?

[posthuman]

"The Law" - the Torah, the books of Moses, the law of Moses, the Sinai Covenant, etc
i think we all know what this refers to. no, it's not just the 10 commandments. don't be silly. ((James 2:9-10))


we know that righteousness cannot be attained through the law, neither can life:

​

I do not set aside the grace of God; for if righteousness comes through the law, then Christ died in vain.​

(Galatians 2:21) ​

​

Is the law then against the promises of God? Certainly not! ​

For if there had been a law given which could have given life, truly righteousness would have been by the law. ​

(Galatians 3:21) ​

​

a law was given, but it was not one through which righteousness could come, and not one that could give life.
this is puzzling - because the law itself says 'the one who does these things will live by them' ((Leviticus 18:5, Romans 10:5, Galatians 3:12)) - yet by these things, i.e. Torah, no one receives life ((Galatians 2:16, Romans 3:20, Galatians 3:11 etc)).
still, it was given by God, and it is perfect. it was given by God to a specific people at a specific time. ((for more info, read Exodus & Deuteronomy etc))
why? how is this perfect -- how is a law that cannot produce righteousness and cannot give life, the absolute perfect law to be given to this people at this time?

we know too, 'by the law is the knowledge of sin' ((Romans 3:20, 7:7-9 etc)) and 'the law was a schoolmaster' to bring people to Christ ((Galatians 3:24)). so we know some things about the purpose of the law. and we know, 'the letter kills but the Spirit gives life' ((2 Corinthians 3:6)) -- in fact He has made us ministers of a new covenant, 'built on better promises' ((Hebrews 8:6)) -- and the first is 'made obsolete' ((Hebrews 8:13)).

so here is my question ((yay! a question!)), phrased in the form of a few questions, but really it is all one question:

why wasn't the spiritual law given in the first place?
why a Torah of ordinances & statutes & commandments called a 'ministry of death' ((2 Corinthians 3:7)) to go before?
why a law which makes everyone who relies it, under a curse? ((Deuteronomy 27:26, Galatians 3:10))
why require the blood of bulls and goats when it can never take away sin?
why command physical circumcision if it means nothing, but only the circumcision done without human hands is effectual?
why did God give The Law which 'is not of faith' ((Galatians 3:12)) instead of giving faith?
why did grace & truth wait over a thousand years after Moses to come through Jesus Christ ((John 1:17))?

 

[posthuman]

is Isaiah 28:13 the answer? so that they who are under it will fall backwards, be broken, snared and captured?

why a slave woman instead of a free woman ((Galatians 4:30)) ?

is it because, Galatians 3:22 & Romans 11:32, all are constrained under sin in order that He might show mercy to all?
is the whole reason The Law exists so that all are without excuse, so that it is plain how utterly depraved & wicked we all are, so that no one lift up his or her chin in vanity, but all may be humbled before God, looking to Him for mercy?

is it because all mankind is stiff-necked & evil? because the law is for the ungodly, not the righteous ((1 Timothy 1:9))

 

[posthuman]

thanks for reading my drivel.

the question leapt up at me out of a discussion i was having with my wife about Sarah - how that Hagar was her idea((Genesis 16:2)), and Abraham listened to his wife ((a la Genesis 3)). i thought, how does this comment on the origin of The Law, seeing that Galatians 4 reveals the Sinai covenant - which is the Law - as the son of slavery, in direct contrast with the covenant of promise, the son of freedom.

Stand fast therefore in the liberty by which Christ has made us free,
and do not be entangled again with a yoke of bondage.
(Galatians 5:1)​

 

[John146]

"The Law" - the Torah, the books of Moses, the law of Moses, the Sinai Covenant, etc
i think we all know what this refers to. no, it's not just the 10 commandments. don't be silly. ((James 2:9-10))


we know that righteousness cannot be attained through the law, neither can life:

​

I do not set aside the grace of God; for if righteousness comes through the law, then Christ died in vain.​

(Galatians 2:21) ​

​

Is the law then against the promises of God? Certainly not! ​

For if there had been a law given which could have given life, truly righteousness would have been by the law. ​

(Galatians 3:21) ​

​

a law was given, but it was not one through which righteousness could come, and not one that could give life.
this is puzzling - because the law itself says 'the one who does these things will live by them' ((Leviticus 18:5, Romans 10:5, Galatians 3:12)) - yet by these things, i.e. Torah, no one receives life ((Galatians 2:16, Romans 3:20, Galatians 3:11 etc)).
still, it was given by God, and it is perfect. it was given by God to a specific people at a specific time. ((for more info, read Exodus & Deuteronomy etc))
why? how is this perfect -- how is a law that cannot produce righteousness and cannot give life, the absolute perfect law to be given to this people at this time?

we know too, 'by the law is the knowledge of sin' ((Romans 3:20, 7:7-9 etc)) and 'the law was a schoolmaster' to bring people to Christ ((Galatians 3:24)). so we know some things about the purpose of the law. and we know, 'the letter kills but the Spirit gives life' ((2 Corinthians 3:6)) -- in fact He has made us ministers of a new covenant, 'built on better promises' ((Hebrews 8:6)) -- and the first is 'made obsolete' ((Hebrews 8:13)).

so here is my question ((yay! a question!)), phrased in the form of a few questions, but really it is all one question:

why wasn't the spiritual law given in the first place?
why a Torah of ordinances & statutes & commandments called a 'ministry of death' ((2 Corinthians 3:7)) to go before?
why a law which makes everyone who relies it, under a curse? ((Deuteronomy 27:26, Galatians 3:10))
why require the blood of bulls and goats when it can never take away sin?
why command physical circumcision if it means nothing, but only the circumcision done without human hands is effectual?
why did God give The Law which 'is not of faith' ((Galatians 3:12)) instead of giving faith?
why did grace & truth wait over a thousand years after Moses to come through Jesus Christ ((John 1:17))?

Righteousness could be attained under the law by being blameless in walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord, but this was self righteousness not God’s righteousness. God’s righteousness is by the faith of Jesus Christ.

 

[iamsoandso]

Jesus Christ The Lord is the only one who fulfilled the law though.

 

[Roughsoul1991]

"The Law" - the Torah, the books of Moses, the law of Moses, the Sinai Covenant, etc
i think we all know what this refers to. no, it's not just the 10 commandments. don't be silly. ((James 2:9-10))


we know that righteousness cannot be attained through the law, neither can life:

​

I do not set aside the grace of God; for if righteousness comes through the law, then Christ died in vain.​

(Galatians 2:21) ​

​

Is the law then against the promises of God? Certainly not! ​

For if there had been a law given which could have given life, truly righteousness would have been by the law. ​

(Galatians 3:21) ​

​

a law was given, but it was not one through which righteousness could come, and not one that could give life.
this is puzzling - because the law itself says 'the one who does these things will live by them' ((Leviticus 18:5, Romans 10:5, Galatians 3:12)) - yet by these things, i.e. Torah, no one receives life ((Galatians 2:16, Romans 3:20, Galatians 3:11 etc)).
still, it was given by God, and it is perfect. it was given by God to a specific people at a specific time. ((for more info, read Exodus & Deuteronomy etc))
why? how is this perfect -- how is a law that cannot produce righteousness and cannot give life, the absolute perfect law to be given to this people at this time?

we know too, 'by the law is the knowledge of sin' ((Romans 3:20, 7:7-9 etc)) and 'the law was a schoolmaster' to bring people to Christ ((Galatians 3:24)). so we know some things about the purpose of the law. and we know, 'the letter kills but the Spirit gives life' ((2 Corinthians 3:6)) -- in fact He has made us ministers of a new covenant, 'built on better promises' ((Hebrews 8:6)) -- and the first is 'made obsolete' ((Hebrews 8:13)).

so here is my question ((yay! a question!)), phrased in the form of a few questions, but really it is all one question:

why wasn't the spiritual law given in the first place?
why a Torah of ordinances & statutes & commandments called a 'ministry of death' ((2 Corinthians 3:7)) to go before?
why a law which makes everyone who relies it, under a curse? ((Deuteronomy 27:26, Galatians 3:10))
why require the blood of bulls and goats when it can never take away sin?
why command physical circumcision if it means nothing, but only the circumcision done without human hands is effectual?
why did God give The Law which 'is not of faith' ((Galatians 3:12)) instead of giving faith?
why did grace & truth wait over a thousand years after Moses to come through Jesus Christ ((John 1:17))?

Very true and thank God for his grace, forgiveness and redemption.

 

[dcontroversal]

The laws failure <--the flesh is weak!

 

[dcontroversal]

The law's purpose --> To deem guilt, condemn and shit every mouth

 

[John146]

The law's purpose --> To deem guilt, condemn and shit every mouth

Hey, watch your mouth....

 

[mailmandan]

Hey, watch your mouth....

TYPO -- we know he meant "shut."

 

[John146]

TYPO -- we know he meant "shut."

Of course, I do have a sense of humor, you know.

 

[JaumeJ]

Here is a law, one of many. We are not to move our neighbor's landmark in order to enlarge our own.

Does grace permit anyone to do such? I think not.

A person found guilty with the lawful number of witnesses of various crimes should be put to eath by stoning.

Will we obey this law? The Masster teaches any law should contain mercy....so I know it should not be obeyed.

There is a law for what is to be sacrificed for a sin, many for that matter, will you obey them? Of couse not, for our Savior is the Only Lamb of God Who takes away sin.

All who say those who believe we should obey GoD are under the law are those who are burdened yet by the law.

They have not learned much from the Master, yet they themselves have put themselves up as prosecutors, judges and executioners. and so it goes. I will obey according to the teaching of Jesus Chrisgt, Yeshua.

 

[OneOfHis]

"The Law" - the Torah, the books of Moses, the law of Moses, the Sinai Covenant, etc
i think we all know what this refers to. no, it's not just the 10 commandments. don't be silly. ((James 2:9-10))


we know that righteousness cannot be attained through the law, neither can life:

​

I do not set aside the grace of God; for if righteousness comes through the law, then Christ died in vain.​

(Galatians 2:21) ​

​

Is the law then against the promises of God? Certainly not! ​

For if there had been a law given which could have given life, truly righteousness would have been by the law. ​

(Galatians 3:21) ​

​

a law was given, but it was not one through which righteousness could come, and not one that could give life.
this is puzzling - because the law itself says 'the one who does these things will live by them' ((Leviticus 18:5, Romans 10:5, Galatians 3:12)) - yet by these things, i.e. Torah, no one receives life ((Galatians 2:16, Romans 3:20, Galatians 3:11 etc)).
still, it was given by God, and it is perfect. it was given by God to a specific people at a specific time. ((for more info, read Exodus & Deuteronomy etc))
why? how is this perfect -- how is a law that cannot produce righteousness and cannot give life, the absolute perfect law to be given to this people at this time?

we know too, 'by the law is the knowledge of sin' ((Romans 3:20, 7:7-9 etc)) and 'the law was a schoolmaster' to bring people to Christ ((Galatians 3:24)). so we know some things about the purpose of the law. and we know, 'the letter kills but the Spirit gives life' ((2 Corinthians 3:6)) -- in fact He has made us ministers of a new covenant, 'built on better promises' ((Hebrews 8:6)) -- and the first is 'made obsolete' ((Hebrews 8:13)).

so here is my question ((yay! a question!)), phrased in the form of a few questions, but really it is all one question:

why wasn't the spiritual law given in the first place?
why a Torah of ordinances & statutes & commandments called a 'ministry of death' ((2 Corinthians 3:7)) to go before?
why a law which makes everyone who relies it, under a curse? ((Deuteronomy 27:26, Galatians 3:10))
why require the blood of bulls and goats when it can never take away sin?
why command physical circumcision if it means nothing, but only the circumcision done without human hands is effectual?
why did God give The Law which 'is not of faith' ((Galatians 3:12)) instead of giving faith?
why did grace & truth wait over a thousand years after Moses to come through Jesus Christ ((John 1:17))?

A lot of deep questions, some of which we will only know completely once we ask our Father in heaven....


But with my testimony and Gods word I think I can answer how some of these relate to me personally.

When I was new to seeking truth in Christ I started reading the bible and eventually through His law came to an understanding .... I NEEED Gods mercy.

Also the blood is to represent that which was to come (our Savior and Lord Jesus Christ).. They knew that sin was to be paid for with life and the life is in the blood.

Circumcision, welp...honestly I always just took this as an act of obedience that would separate His people in a way that would last for life. The physical again is just there to represent what must happen in spirit. (correct me if I have missed something please)



Why wait so long?
Well I believe Gods timing is perfect and in His mighty and wise efforts to show anyone with eyes to see or ears to hear that we have always needed His mercy, He has used the law as a powerful tool which probably served many more purposes than just to convict those who seek Him...

Maybe to avoid eating an "unclean" animal at a certain time was not only lawful but also wise for health reasons.... etc...

 

[Grandpa]

If a law was given where a person could be righteous by it then no one would need God.

All they would need is their strength and that law.

Then they could glory before the Lord in their own strength and their own understanding.



The spiritual law wasn't given first because people had to know, without a doubt, that they can't be righteous by their own work and their own understanding.

They have to know that without the Lord they can do nothing.

 

[Dave-L]

Good people do not need law. Paul says;

“realizing the fact that law is not made for a righteous person, but for those who are lawless and rebellious, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers and immoral men and homosexuals and kidnappers and liars and perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound teaching,” 1 Timothy 1:9–10 (NASB95)

And the Law could not save. It forced wicked people to act good under threat of death, exile, war, sickness, poverty and the like. While promising physical temporary benefits for obedience. The obedient thought they were good for not stealing when they wanted to. But good people do not want to steal.

Abraham and all believers did not need the law, but naturally fulfilled it through the Two Great Commandments of love for God and people written on their hearts.

After the wicked served their purpose, God removed them from Israel leaving only the faithful like Abraham under Christ. He did this by abolishing the Law (Jeremiah 31:31–33) and replacing it with the New Covenant for believers only. To this New Covenant version of Israel, God grafts in believing gentiles. And any of the broken off ethnic Israel who come to faith in Christ.

 

[Melach]

The laws failure <--the flesh is weak!

yes. its so hard for even non-spiritual things. like trying to exercise regularly even that takes all mental strength to force yourself to do it.

 

[garee]

I would offer. A Law was given by which one could be righteous called the perfect law.

Not the letter of the law, death. It will not enter the new order. But with the law of faith the unseen both working together as one perfect law. The two witness of God .The letter typified by Moses, the law giver. and the prophets typified by Elias as to the power of the unseen. . "law of faith" or "work of faith (Christ in us) . Again they cannot work separated but together as one perfect . Like that of the father and the Son. The kind of law that gives us the faith to believe in God not seen.

A beautiful Psalm that was used to preach the "gospel" beforehand in respect to the suffering of Christ and the glory that follows.. .Spiritual words not seen converting the soul giving us simply ones his understand. . so that then we can search for Him by faith.

The law of the Lord is perfect, "converting the soul": the testimony of the Lord is sure, "making wise the simple". The statutes of the Lord are right, rejoicing the heart: the commandment of the Lord is pure, enlightening the eyes. Psalms19: 7-8

 

[oldethennew]

some really good thinking and questions going on in here friends -

first of all, we know that the Law is Spiritual - ROMANS 7:14, 'For we know that the Law is spiritual: but I am carnal, sold under sin.' -
the reason it's Spiritual is because God spoke all these Words,' EX. 20:1.

there are (2) kinds of Righteousness, -
ROMANS 10:5.
For Moses describes the righteousness which is of the Law, That the man which does those things shall live by them.
(This is our 'daily-walk') = we don't (lie-steal-cheat-commit adulty), etc...
and then there is God's (saving righteousness) -
(Abraham believed God and it was counted to him for 'righteousness' -
this is the righteousness of Faith, or Believing in Jesus Christ...
each 'type' of Righteousness has its 'purpose', (both are ordained of God)...

 

[Blik]

"The Law" - the Torah, the books of Moses, the law of Moses, the Sinai Covenant, etc
i think we all know what this refers to. no, it's not just the 10 commandments. don't be silly. ((James 2:9-10))


we know that righteousness cannot be attained through the law, neither can life:

​

I do not set aside the grace of God; for if righteousness comes through the law, then Christ died in vain.​

(Galatians 2:21) ​

​

Is the law then against the promises of God? Certainly not! ​

For if there had been a law given which could have given life, truly righteousness would have been by the law. ​

(Galatians 3:21) ​

​

a law was given, but it was not one through which righteousness could come, and not one that could give life.
this is puzzling - because the law itself says 'the one who does these things will live by them' ((Leviticus 18:5, Romans 10:5, Galatians 3:12)) - yet by these things, i.e. Torah, no one receives life ((Galatians 2:16, Romans 3:20, Galatians 3:11 etc)).
still, it was given by God, and it is perfect. it was given by God to a specific people at a specific time. ((for more info, read Exodus & Deuteronomy etc))
why? how is this perfect -- how is a law that cannot produce righteousness and cannot give life, the absolute perfect law to be given to this people at this time?

we know too, 'by the law is the knowledge of sin' ((Romans 3:20, 7:7-9 etc)) and 'the law was a schoolmaster' to bring people to Christ ((Galatians 3:24)). so we know some things about the purpose of the law. and we know, 'the letter kills but the Spirit gives life' ((2 Corinthians 3:6)) -- in fact He has made us ministers of a new covenant, 'built on better promises' ((Hebrews 8:6)) -- and the first is 'made obsolete' ((Hebrews 8:13)).

so here is my question ((yay! a question!)), phrased in the form of a few questions, but really it is all one question:

why wasn't the spiritual law given in the first place?
why a Torah of ordinances & statutes & commandments called a 'ministry of death' ((2 Corinthians 3:7)) to go before?
why a law which makes everyone who relies it, under a curse? ((Deuteronomy 27:26, Galatians 3:10))
why require the blood of bulls and goats when it can never take away sin?
why command physical circumcision if it means nothing, but only the circumcision done without human hands is effectual?
why did God give The Law which 'is not of faith' ((Galatians 3:12)) instead of giving faith?
why did grace & truth wait over a thousand years after Moses to come through Jesus Christ ((John 1:17))?

Physical circumcision was given to what the Holy Spirit does for us today. It was a guide for people to live a life of law obedience. The laws of God are guides for us to live in joy and abundance. Sometimes people obeyed the physical laws but not the spiritual ones as some of the Pharisees did.

If you read a secular history of the time of Christ you find that the people of that time called the physical laws God gave the Law of Moses. History tells us that the Jews of that time required converts to their religion to obey physical laws, as we read in the book of Acts. The council decided that only the laws that allowed the gentiles to attend services in the synagogue need be followed. It was necessary for gentiles to go to synagogue to worship and learn about God. Unless you are aware that sometime the words Law of Moses is talking of these physical laws that are no longer in effect, you can get pretty mixed up about what Paul is telling us.

 

[Dino246]

Good people do not need law.

True!

There's just one problem with that though...

Luke 18:19 And Jesus said to him, “Why do you call Me good? No one is good except God alone."