Can the Trinity be Biblically proven?

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bluto

Senior Member
Aug 4, 2016
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First of all the angel of the Lord is not an angel. The Hebrew word for angel is "malak" and it can mean a real angel but it also simply mean messenger. It depends on how the word is used in context. For example at Malachie 3:1, "Behold, I am going to send my angel, and he will clear the way before Me, And the Lord, whom you seek, will suddengly come to His temple; and the messenger of the covenant, in whom you delight, behold, He is coming says the Lord of hosts." The angel in this verse is none other than John the Baptist and John is not an angel but a messenger. Just read Mark 1:1-3.

Secondly, Hebrews 6:13,14 is clear as crystal that it was God Almighty that swore the oath. Yet at Genesis 22 you have the angel of the Lord calling out from heaven two times and he swears the oath at Genesis 22:16 where it says crystal clear, "By Myself I have sworn, declares the Lord.

The other problems you have is the fact that Abraham would not sacrifice his son to an angel. Thirdly, why does the angel of the Lord call out from heaven two times when at other places the Lord God calls out from heaven Himself? Exodus 20:22, "Then the Lord said to Moses, Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, You yourselves have seen that I HAVE SPOKEN TO YOU FROM HEAVEN."

So quasar, please, please spare us the pain of you constintly posting for us to refer to your post #1 to post #1,000. You continue to fail in addressing one word of anyones post. You keep defering to your unbiblical post which most of us have read. Let me challenge you to please read the whole chapter of Genesis 22 and tell me why you disagree with what it says? :eek:

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
 
Feb 9, 2010
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First of all the angel of the Lord is not an angel. The Hebrew word for angel is "malak" and it can mean a real angel but it also simply mean messenger. It depends on how the word is used in context. For example at Malachie 3:1, "Behold, I am going to send my angel, and he will clear the way before Me, And the Lord, whom you seek, will suddengly come to His temple; and the messenger of the covenant, in whom you delight, behold, He is coming says the Lord of hosts." The angel in this verse is none other than John the Baptist and John is not an angel but a messenger. Just read Mark 1:1-3.

Secondly, Hebrews 6:13,14 is clear as crystal that it was God Almighty that swore the oath. Yet at Genesis 22 you have the angel of the Lord calling out from heaven two times and he swears the oath at Genesis 22:16 where it says crystal clear, "By Myself I have sworn, declares the Lord.

The other problems you have is the fact that Abraham would not sacrifice his son to an angel. Thirdly, why does the angel of the Lord call out from heaven two times when at other places the Lord God calls out from heaven Himself? Exodus 20:22, "Then the Lord said to Moses, Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, You yourselves have seen that I HAVE SPOKEN TO YOU FROM HEAVEN."

So quasar, please, please spare us the pain of you constintly posting for us to refer to your post #1 to post #1,000. You continue to fail in addressing one word of anyones post. You keep defering to your unbiblical post which most of us have read. Let me challenge you to please read the whole chapter of Genesis 22 and tell me why you disagree with what it says? :eek:

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
In the case of Samson's parents,Zorah and Manoah,the angel of God,and referred later in the chapter the angel of the LORD,appeared to be God,for they said we have seen the face of God,and lived,and they asked the angel his name,and he said,why do you ask for my name,seeing it is secret,which the only name that would be secret would be the name Jesus,until the time came for that name to be revealed.
 
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HisHolly

Guest
what about the 4th man in the furnace in Daniel? forgive me but isn't that the son of God they saw? OT reference to Him? I don't study the orig txt so im just asking bc it came to mind when I read someone said there is no mention of Him in the OT.
 

VCO

Senior Member
Oct 14, 2013
11,985
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My remarks in 977 fully support the meaning of FIRSTBORN, according to the Scriptural support provided for it. Furthermore, it means exactly the same as hw Pau used the word in Col.18., as well.


Quasar92
Do your own research, I told you the TRUTH. It does not designate eldest offspring. Besides GOD IS ETERNAL, He is not going to die, YET Jesus said, Everything the Father has is MINE, and that includes the DEITY OF GOD. You would be surprised what all, even you, can learn from studying Jewish Customs and Traditions.
 
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fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
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Supposing yo provide Scriotural proof of the "serious mistakes" I have made.By the same token, you are making a serious mistake by inferring that Jesus is Jehovah. First of all, the letter "J" did not exist at the earliest, until the 12th century. Jehovah is the exclusive English phonetic name for the Hebrew tetragrammaton, YHWY/Yahwey. It was never intended to be used as a name for Jesus.

Yes, I replied to a wrong post, for which I apologized. Do you have some kind of problem with that. Furthermore, If you have problems with something I have posted, then put it in proper quotes, so I know where you are cming from.


Quasar92
Hoho. Now, you may have been offended that Jesus is Jehovah where scriptures interpret it. The demonstration of parallel interpretation is interwoven in the scriptures.

So I see your side comment regarding the letter “J” that “did not exist at the earliest, until 12 Century.” But the “J” sound English did already exist as early as you thought! Aren’t you aware that there is no “W” in Hebrew? and where did you get “Yahwey”? Plus, the Hebrew tetragrammaton is a transliterated into English as JHVH.

Lastly, did I not properly quote you? Actually you have just responded to what I posted about John 17:3 as directed especially to the Russelites and I didn’t know that you as well get offended. Is it because you are one of them? Obviously, it’s NO.
 
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popeye

Guest
How in the world does a Christian do a study on the trinity and miss it?

CLEARLY 3 PERSONS ONE GOD.

Now,does that make sense? No.

Next factoid

God does not need our permission. He simply IS. HE IS I AM.

That means NO HUMANOID can understand him. We only learn a little,and believe IN SPITE OF our puny minds and weak understanding.

Now,without that little nugget,maybe I too would be contesting what God laid out in his Bible.

That is what Quasar and placid are doing. Contesting God's word.

Why does Jehovah call a created being GOD?

HEBREWS;

....BUT OF THE SON HE SAYS "THY THRONE O GOD IS FOREVER"....

Does that compute in mans mind?
 
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popeye

Guest


Read the following very carefully and watch who and what you call a heretic and who's teachings are false!

Proverbs 8:22-25 KJV and NASB


22"The LORD possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old.23I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was.24When there were no depths, I was brought forth; when there were no fountains abounding with water.25Before the mountains were settled, before the hills was I brought forth:"
Proverbs 8:22-25 NIV
“The Lord brought me forth as the first of his works,
before his deeds of old;
23 I was formed long ages ago,
at the very beginning, when the world came to be.
24 When there were no watery depths, I was given birth,
when there were no springs overflowing with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place,
before the hills, I was given birth,"


Gen.14:19 "And he blessed him, and said, Blessed be Abram of the most high
God, possessor of heaven and earth:" KJV and NASB


Gen.14:19 "and he blessed Abram, saying, "Blessed be Abram by God Most High,Creator of heaven and earth." NIV


Gen.14:22 "And Abram said to the king of Sodom, I have lift up mine hand unto the LORD, the most high God, the possessor of heaven and earth," KJV and NASB
[FONT=wf_segoe-ui_normal]
[/FONT]

[FONT=wf_segoe-ui_normal]Gen.14:22 "Abram replied to the king of Sodom, "I solemnly swear to the LORD, God Most High, Creator of heaven and earth," NIV[/FONT]
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[/FONT]

[FONT=wf_segoe-ui_normal]From the above, the origin of the spirit who later became the incarnate Jesus, is shown here aw the FIRSTORN over all creation, as recorded in Col.1:15.[/FONT]
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[FONT=wf_segoe-ui_normal]Definition of FIRSTBORN:[/FONT]
[FONT=wf_segoe-ui_normal]adj.
[/FONT]

1. first in the order of birth; eldest.
n.2. a firstborn child.
3. a first result or product.


[FONT=wf_segoe-ui_normal]The incarnation of Jesus is recorded in Mt.1:20 and in Lk.1:35:[/FONT]
Heb.10:5 "Therefore, when Christ came into the world, he said:
“Sacrifice and offering you did not desire,
but a body you prepared for me;"



One of many examples of spirits entering the body of a person or an animal. Including Satan entering into Judas.


Mk.5:1"Then they came to the other side of the sea, to the region of the Gerasenes.[a] 2 As soon as He got out of the boat, a man with an uncleanspirit came out of the tombs and met Him. 3 He lived in the tombs. No one was able to restrain him anymore—even with chains— 4 because he often had been bound with shackles and chains, but had snapped off the chains and smashed the shackles. No one was strong enough to subduehim. 5 And always, night and day, he was crying out among the tombsand in the mountains and cutting himself with stones.

6 When he saw Jesus from a distance, he ran and knelt down before Him.7 And he cried out with a loud voice, “What do You have to do with me,[b]Jesus, Son of the Most High God? I beg[c] You before God, don’t torment me!” 8 For He had told him, “Come out of the man, you unclean spirit!”


Lk.22:3 "Then Satan entered Judas, called Iscariot, one of the Twelve."


The above Scriptural facts fully support what I have posted.



Quasar92

Every cult tampers with the person of Jesus

JUST LIKE YOU DO.

That is the deal quasar. Who is Jesus. That is the deal.

That is the game changer.

That is why you and placid are both heretics.

That is the deal.

Part of your deception is WHERE YOU START. You start with UNDERSTANDING. That is YOUR STARTING PLACE.


I start "IN THE BEGINNING"

John 1;1.

Jesus is creator.

YOU ARE A HERETIC
 
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popeye

Guest
Both quasar and placid BEGIN WITH a created Jesus.

That is their starting place.

Now,they made that happen.

They MADE JESUS INTO A CREATED BEING.

THEIR IS NO OTHER WAY TO PUT IT.

THEY ARE HERETICS IF THEY HAVE JESUS AS CREATED.

VERY DANGEROUS DESTRUCTIVE FALSE DOCTRINE.

HERETICS. FALSE BROTHERS. PERVERTERS OF A FAITH THE MARTYRS DIED FOR.
 
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popeye

Guest
Hi Popeye,
 
Quote from Post 961:
Jesus is the God man,and still is.
You use the word "created" in regards to Jesus,as does Quasar.
Jesus is not created,nor did he come to inhabit a created body.
He became flesh.
It you have a problem with the trinity,then join the club,because it is beyond our brains as you and quasar have proven.
You both think you have to mentally corral all the dynamics of a truth.
We belive it because it is,not because we understand it.
Did you know man is a trinity?
Spirit,soul,and body. We are 3 but 1.....all at the same time.
And Jesus became a priest before his earthly ministry.
John,a levite,transferred the priesthood to Jesus,at baptism.The priesthood ITSELF CHANGED.
Jesus ministered,died,and rose again as a priest. His priesthood was not of aaron/ levitical. It was judaic/ David/ melchasidic.
Jesus BECAME MAN. The God man.
Not God in a created body. That is what we are.
 
Response: --- Don't be offended by what I say, but some time ago I posted the language or words of trinity, that are not in the Scripture, --- which came from the Roman Catholic doctrine that was written by men.
Bluto acknowledged that none of these are in the Scriptures, but it doesn't matter to those who believe what they have heard, rather than what the Scriptures say.
--- A common saying is, --- "Don't confuse me with the facts, my mind is made up!"

So let's examine the terms, and language of trinity in the Strong's Concordance, which is based on the King James which was the Bible we started out with.
The 'deity' of Christ, --- Not found, because the word 'deity' is not in the Bible'
The 'divinity' of Christ --- Not found --- since 'divinity' is not in the Scripture.
The word 'divine' is used twice in 2 Peter 1, which speak of God's 'divine power,' and 'divine nature,' --- but no 'divine beings.'
--- 'God Incarnate,' 'incarnation' and 'pre-incarnation' are not found in Scripture.
The words 'triune,' tri-unity,' and 'trinity,' are not found in the Scripture.
The term, 'co-equal,' --- is not in the Scripture
The concept of trinity, --- it was obviously not known to the Apostles, or they would have taught it.
--- A verse that says, 'Jesus is God,' --- or a verse where Jesus said, "I am God." --- No.
--- A verse that says, 'Christ is God,' --- or a verse where Christ said, "I am God." --- No.
And there are no verses that say Jesus was in heaven before He was born on earth.
--- And no 'God-man.' ---But it does say that "Jesus was born on earth."
--- There are no places where it says, 'the Word was Jesus,' or that says, 'Jesus was the Word.'
However, it does say that the Word was God, in John 1:1 --- so we do have two Gods, (which perhaps was their discussion that led to the first Nicene Creed.)

Basically, there is no wording in the Scripture that supports the concept of trinity. --- the thing it does is try to bring Almighty God down to the level of subordinates.
 
--- I will answer your statements later with words in the Scripture.
Now see that?

You come on as a teacher. An instructor.

And yet so ignorant of the bible you poorly try to represent.

Hebrews 1;

..... But of the son ( that would be Jesus) he (God,Jehovah) says "thy throne o GOD is forever"

You are way off...

And most certainly a false teacher,a cultist,and a HERETIC
 

Placid

Senior Member
Sep 27, 2016
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Hi Bluto,
Quote from Post 969:
Wow placid, I can't let what you said pass without me responding to your list of terms. First of all you said, "The deity of Christ is not found in the Bible. That is not true? Colossians 2:9 says, "For in Him/Jesus Christ all the fulness of the Godhead bodily." (KJB). Now, I happen to use the NASB and it uses the word "Deity" instead of Godhead. The following is the definition of Godhead.

Response: --- Ahh yes, --- This is where you get all tangled up
The King James and the Douay Rheims translations from the 16th century say, "Godhead", as well as the New King James.
The American Standard Bible says, Colossians 2:
8 Take heed lest there shall be any one that maketh spoil of you through his philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ:
9 for in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily,

The New American Standard Bible says Colossians 2:
8 See to it that no one takes you captive through philosophy and empty deception, according to the tradition of men, according to the elementary principles of the world, rather than according to Christ.
9 For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form,
--- So you can see how the influence of 'trinitarians' began to change the words, in some newer translations.
 
You said this in the quote:
Colossians 2:9 says, "For in Him/Jesus Christ all the fulness of the Godhead bodily." (KJB).
--- But you are wrong, it doesn't refer to 'Jesus Christ', --- it refers to Christ.
Notice again the King James Bible, Colossians 2:
8 Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, AFTER THE TRADITIONS OF MEN, after the rudiments of the world, --- and not after Christ.
9 For in him (Christ) dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:

Before we go into the Godhead part of the verse, I want to show you this:
--- After the resurrection and ascension of Jesus, He, Jesus, went to heaven to become the High Priest in the Sanctuary on the right hand of the throne, Hebrews 8:
1 Now this is the main point of the things we are saying: We have such a High Priest, who is seated at the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in the heavens,
2 A MINISTER OF THE SANCTUARY and of THE TRUE TABERNACLE which the Lord erected, and not man.
 
Did you notice that after the ascension, the FOCUS was on Christ, and they were no longer together? --- The name Christ is used 6 times, and the name Christ Jesus once, here in Colossians 2.
= 1st mention:
2 To the knowledge of the mystery of God, both of the Father and of Christ,
3 in whom are hidden all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge.
= 2nd mention:
4 Rejoicing to see your good order and the steadfastness of your faith in Christ.
= 3rd mention:
6 As you therefore have received Christ Jesus the Lord, so walk in Him,
7 rooted and built up in Him and established in the faith
--- (This is the way everyone must come to Salvation, by Faith in Christ Jesus, --- before we go on in the guidance of the Holy Spirit.)
= 4th mention:
11 By putting off the body of the sins of the flesh, by the circumcision of Christ,
= 5th mention:
17 which are a shadow of things to come, but the substance is of Christ.
= 6th mention:
19 And not holding fast to the Head*, from whom all the body, nourished and knit together by joints and ligaments, grows with the increase that is from God.
--- The Head* --- cross reference to Eph 4:
13 To a perfect man, to the measure of the stature of the fullness of Christ;
15 And, speaking the truth in love, may grow up in all things into Him who is the head—Christ—
16 from whom the whole body, joined and knit together by what every joint supplies, according to the effective working by which every part does its share, causes growth of the body for the edifying of itself in love. --- (Christ is the Head of the Church.)

= 7th mention
20 Therefore, if you died with Christ from the basic principles of the world, why, as though living in the world, do you subject yourselves to regulations
Enough for now.
 
 

Placid

Senior Member
Sep 27, 2016
316
36
28
Hi Popeye,
 
Quote from Post 961:
1. Jesus is the God man,and still is.
 
Response: --- I don't know if you notices, but I said none of the language of trinity is in the Scripture including 'God man.'
But as you said, "We don't understand it, we just believe it." --- Which is okay for you, but you should know what the Scripture says, should you not?


2. You use the word "created" in regards to Jesus,as does Quasar.

Jesus is not created,nor did he come to inhabit a created body.

He became flesh.


Response: --- It says in Matthew 1:
16 And Jacob begot Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus who is called Christ.
18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was as follows: After His mother Mary was betrothed to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Spirit.
24 Then Joseph, being aroused from sleep, did as the angel of the Lord commanded him and took to him his wife,
25 and did not know her till she had brought forth her firstborn Son. And he called His name Jesus.
 
--- Now it gives the time of Jesus' birth, --- and even the Calendar was restarted at that time.
You used part of the verse, John 1:14, "And the Word became flesh".

Was there a time before the Word became flesh?
Did it happen when Jesus was born?
Would the Baby Jesus have Mary' DNA? --- If so, the physical Jesus could not have been born before His Mother, could He?
 
--- Do you want to answer these questions before we go on?
 
 

bluto

Senior Member
Aug 4, 2016
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First of all placid, I'm not the one tangled up, you are? You said this: " So you can see how the influence of 'trinitarians' began to change the words, in some newer translations." If they changed the word "Godhead" used in the KJB to "Deity" then tell me what is the difference between the two words? You tell me what "Godhead" means?

Secondly, ok then let's leave the word "Godhead." What does the word "Godhead" mean at Acts 17:29, "For as much then as we are the offspring of God, we ought not to think that the "Godhead" is like unto gold, or silver, or stone, an image formed by the art and thought of man."

And how about Romans 1:20, "For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, beingunderstood by the things that are mde, even his eternal power and "Godhead; so they are without excuse." What does the word mean in this verse placid? How would you define the word in these two places placid? :eek:

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
 
Aug 19, 2016
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Hoho. Now, you may have been offended that Jesus is Jehovah where scriptures interpret it. The demonstration of parallel interpretation is interwoven in the scriptures.

So I see your side comment regarding the letter “J” that “did not exist at the earliest, until 12 Century.” But the “J” sound English did already exist as early as you thought! Aren’t you aware that there is no “W” in Hebrew? and where did you get “Yahwey”? Plus, the Hebrew tetragrammaton is a transliterated into English as JHVH.

Lastly, did I not properly quote you? Actually you have just responded to what I posted about John 17:3 as directed especially to the Russelites and I didn’t know that you as well get offended. Is it because you are one of them? Obviously, it’s NO.


Either prove what I posted by the Scriptures or your above meaningless opinion is false:

>>>Supposing yo provide Scriptural proof of the "serious mistakes" I have made.By the same token, you are making a serious mistake by inferring that Jesus is Jehovah. First of all, the letter "J" did not exist at the earliest, until the 12th century. Jehovah is the exclusive English phonetic name for the Hebrew tetragrammaton, YHWY/Yahwey. It was never intended to be used as a name for Jesus.<<<


Quasar92
 

bluto

Senior Member
Aug 4, 2016
2,060
523
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Come on quasar, you still have not been able to refute the meaning of "firstborn" which I posted and you have not addressed, why? Now your a big time expert on the Hebrew alphabet? :eek:

And yet again quasar, more contradictions from you. You said this: "Show me where I have denied the deity of Jesus Christ in anything I have posted!" Then in this post you say this: "With your understanding of the Scriptures, you contradict many OT passages such as Isa.45:5. The Scriptures are crystal clear as to when Jesus became the Son of God/God the Son, whether you are able to accept it or not!"

Isaiah 45:5, "I am the Lord and there is no other; Besides Me there is no God." So who does this refer quasar? Is it God the Father or is it God the Son? And when exactly did the Son of God/God the Son become God the Son? And speaking of "sons" let me "school" you on the term "Firsborn" which you think it "ONLY" means first one born. There's a secondary meaning that obviously your not aware of even though it has been brought to your attention.

The word "firsborn" as it is used of Jesus Christ can be found in five places in the New Testament. Romans 8:29, Colossians 1:15, 18, Revelation 1:5 and Hebrews 1:6. In this specific places the word does not mean first one born or first one created. It refers "RANK." In other words, Jesus is first in rank in the whole creations. He is first in rank in the inhabited world, first rank among the resurrected, and first in rank among the glorified. None is comparable to Him.

Remember what I told you what John the Baptist stated at John 1:15? Which btw you did not answer or address the question of how is it that John the Baptist new that Jesus Christ existed before him? Here's the verse, "John bore witness of Him/Jesus, and cried out, saying, "This was He of whom I said, He who comes after me, HAS A HIGHER RANK THAN I, for (or why quasar?) HE EXISTED BEFORE ME."

The meaning of firstborn can also be illustrated from the Old Testament. In ancient Israel the eldest son was given preferential treatment. He assumed more responsibility than the others, and was rewarded with honor and given two shares in the family inheritance instead of a single share that each of his younger brothers received. BUT, sometimes the eldest son fell out of favor with his father and was "REPLACED" in the favored position by a younger brother.

Here are some examples. Joseph, replaced Reuben at Genesis 4:3 and 1 Chronicles 5:1,2. Ephraim, who replaced Manasseh at Genesis 48:13-20. Jacob replaced Esau at Genesis 27 and Solomon replace Adonijah at 1 Kings 1:5-53. In all os these cases the younger became the firstborn, i.e., he attained to FIRST IN RANK.

This means that the word "firstborn" does not always refer to the first one born by birth. So when the word is applied to Jesus Christ it does not mean first one born at birth but that He rightly deserves preferential share, honor, inheritance and glory etc. So for example when the Bible says Jesus Christ is the "firstborn" from the dead it does not mean He was the first one brought to life because Lazarus was dead before Jesus but Jesus was the firstborn from the dead in a permannet way.

So quasar, can you please for a change address these issues with some "cogent" answers instead of referring me to post #473 or whatever instead? :eek:

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
 
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RBA238

Guest
He is the Son of God – He is 'His Son' --- He is 'MY Son' (Matt 3.17; 17.5; 21.27) – He is 'The Son' (John 5.19 and often) – He is the only Son of the God (John 1.18; 3.16) – He is the only Son of the Father (John 1.14) --- He is the First and the Last, the Living One (Rev 1.17) --- He is the Alpha and Omega, the First and the Last, the Beginning and the End (Rev 22.13), --- He is the Holy One (John 6.69; Acts 13.35) – He is the LORD (YHWH) --- He is the Lord of Glory (1 Cor 2.8) – He is our great God and Saviour (Tit 2.13) --- He is the image of the invisible God (Col 1.15) – He is the outshining of His glory and the express image of His substance (Heb 1.3) --- In Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead in bodily form (Col 2.9).


He is omnipresent (Heb 1.3; Matt 18.20; 28.29), He is omniscient (Matt 11.27), He is judge of the living and the dead (2 Tim 4.1), He will bring about the resurrection (John 5.25-29), Men call on His Name (1 Cor 1.1-2; Acts 7.59).


He can open the eyes of the blind.
Question: Can you Show anyone where in Scripture where it states "God, The Son"?? It always says: "The SON OF GOD" Never "GOD, THE SON"...
When we read The Son of God it translates by definition as : The Son ( The manifested flesh) of The Unseen Spirit ( The Father)..

If we say.."God, The Son" it translates unto a two person relationship. That is why you never read: "GOD, THE SON" In the Bible..
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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Question: Can you Show anyone where in Scripture where it states "God, The Son"?? It always says: "The SON OF GOD" Never "GOD, THE SON"...
When we read The Son of God it translates by definition as : The Son ( The manifested flesh) of The Unseen Spirit ( The Father)..

If we say.."God, The Son" it translates unto a two person relationship. That is why you never read: "GOD, THE SON" In the Bible..
Jesus regularly spoke of Himself as 'the Son' in relation to 'the Father'. If God the Father is legitimate. so is God the Son.
 
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popeye

Guest
Question: Can you Show anyone where in Scripture where it states "God, The Son"?? It always says: "The SON OF GOD" Never "GOD, THE SON"...
When we read The Son of God it translates by definition as : The Son ( The manifested flesh) of The Unseen Spirit ( The Father)..

If we say.."God, The Son" it translates unto a two person relationship. That is why you never read: "GOD, THE SON" In the Bible..
...and your point?

....pentecostal oneness?
 
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popeye

Guest
There is and was only ONE TRIUNE GOD. He was revealed in His unity in the OT and revealed in triuneness in the NT.

Contrary to your heresy the Holy Spirit was NEVER the Father of Jesus.

God was initially tripartite. The 'Father' and 'Son' were ideas introduced by humans to explain HIM.
Bravo

Well said
 
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RBA238

Guest
...and your point?

....pentecostal oneness?
My point is: What is fact and Actual Devil inspired FICTION. The Apostles of Jesus whom wrote The New Testament never taught or preached any other Gospel but the One Jesus taught them. And he never taught them anything but the 3 in the Godhead are ALL ONE..NOT 3 PERSONS..
 
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popeye

Guest
Hi Popeye,
 
Quote from Post 961:
1. Jesus is the God man,and still is.
 
Response: --- I don't know if you notices, but I said none of the language of trinity is in the Scripture including 'God man.'
But as you said, "We don't understand it, we just believe it." --- Which is okay for you, but you should know what the Scripture says, should you not?


2. You use the word "created" in regards to Jesus,as does Quasar.

Jesus is not created,nor did he come to inhabit a created body.

He became flesh.


Response: --- It says in Matthew 1:
16 And Jacob begot Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus who is called Christ.
18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was as follows: After His mother Mary was betrothed to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Spirit.
24 Then Joseph, being aroused from sleep, did as the angel of the Lord commanded him and took to him his wife,
25 and did not know her till she had brought forth her firstborn Son. And he called His name Jesus.
 
--- Now it gives the time of Jesus' birth, --- and even the Calendar was restarted at that time.
You used part of the verse, John 1:14, "And the Word became flesh".

Was there a time before the Word became flesh?
Did it happen when Jesus was born?
Would the Baby Jesus have Mary' DNA? --- If so, the physical Jesus could not have been born before His Mother, could He?
 
--- Do you want to answer these questions before we go on?
 
The verses you quote to make a point.(whatever that point is)

Need to be answered in light of Jesus being eternally past,the Son.

"...and who is that 4th man like unto the son of God in the furnace with them"

Me;"that is none other that God the Son"

Now ,what were you saying about when he became the son?