Did Jesus Have The Human Sinful Nature?

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Oct 31, 2015
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I quoted a Bible translation.
Where?






Aparantly you don’t understand the phrase for flesh gives birth to flesh is a reference to natural child birth.


This is He who came by water and blood—Jesus Christ; not only by water, but by water and blood. And it is the Spirit who bears witness, because the Spirit is truth.
1 John 5:6

Came by by water described natural child birth.

Came by Water and blood described supernatural virgin child birth.

“Came” refers to; came into the world.


Let’s go to John 3, where John records Jesus using this phrase.


5 Jesus answered, “Most assuredly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God.6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. John 3:5-6


Born of Water = Natural child birth -
That which is born of the flesh

Born of the Spirit = Spiritual Birth.
that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.



JPT
 

CS1

Moderator
May 23, 2012
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But you said it was a teaching found in Hebrews 1-2, it isn't.
NO I said your two verses you used from Hebrews 2:17-18 is incomplete because you did not take the prior chapter of ONE before you formulated the idea Jesus has a sinful nature . Heb 2:17-18 are the verses you used to support your claim. Those verses in the NLT do not say that .
 
Jan 6, 2018
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NO I said your two verses you used from Hebrews 2:17-18 is incomplete because you did not take the prior chapter of ONE before you formulated the idea Jesus has a sinful nature . Heb 2:17-18 are the verses you used to support your claim. Those verses in the NLT do not say that .
Your assertion that the first two chapters of Hebrews contradicts my OP is false.
 
Jan 6, 2018
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yes they do and an I showed you that too. in post # 754
Anybody can go there and read that is only your assertion. There is nothing in Scripture to prohibit an omnipotent God from having a fallen human sinful nature body just like ours , yet not commit sins.
 

CS1

Moderator
May 23, 2012
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Anybody can go there and read that is only your assertion. There is nothing in Scripture to prohibit an omnipotent God from having a fallen human sinful nature body just like ours , yet not commit sins.
a body without sin
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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I'm somewhat surprised that this unmerry-go-round has been allowed to spin so long.
 

OstrichSmiling

Well-known member
Jun 17, 2018
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a body without sin
A man without sin. :) Because he was God wearing a human suit. John 1.
Jesus also was without a sin nature as are we because we did not inherit the sin of Adam.
We are accountable at a certain age for our behaviors. And that is when we are able to sin.

"The person who sins will die. The son will not bear the punishment of the father's iniquity; nor will the father bear the punishment for the son's iniquity; the righteousness of the righteous will be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked will be on himself." (Ezekiel 18:20)

The doctrine that insists Jesus had a sin nature given Jesus was God is disavowing the divinity of God and Jesus Christ. It is the highest blasphemy within the lowest teaching.
 
Jan 6, 2018
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I'm somewhat surprised that this unmerry-go-round has been allowed to spin so long.
I think it is because people want to believe: "since Jesus was essentially in a different class than me, then it is okay I can sin because He wasn't really like me and did not go through my struggle with sin." Because if Jesus did have our sin nature yet did not sin then we have no excuse to be failed Christians.
 

shrume

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2017
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I think it is because people want to believe: "since Jesus was essentially in a different class than me, then it is okay I can sin because He wasn't really like me and did not go through my struggle with sin." Because if Jesus did have our sin nature yet did not sin then we have no excuse to be failed Christians.
Who here do you think believes THAT?
 
T

theanointedsinner

Guest
Jesus was NEVER a hypocrite
so saying that Jesus have a sin nature somehow implies the possible hypocrisy of ...
... in short, Jesus is free from all possible sin nature, therefore a man of perfect morality

consider this, Jesus dying on the cross demonstrates perfect selflessness
even in John 8, the Pharisees tried to trap Jesus, but Jesus was still sinless
 
Jan 6, 2018
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NO a body broken by my sin
That was in His death, not in His incarnation. He was born with a body like us in every way Heb 2:17 under the curse of Adam Rom 5:12 with our sinful nature Rom 8:3 so that He could die for your sins.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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That was in His death, not in His incarnation. He was born with a body like us in every way Heb 2:17 under the curse of Adam Rom 5:12 with our sinful nature Rom 8:3 so that He could die for your sins.
Hebrews 2:17 Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people.

Romans 5:12 Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men [and women] because all sinned

Your argument is based on the idea that "every" in Hebrews 2:17 means "absolutely every", but "all" in Romans 5:12 does not mean "absolutely all".

As I have said before, your position is inconsistent. It really is that simple.
 

GodisONE

Active member
Jul 11, 2018
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I understand.

but that cannt be the condition of someone who is replacing the LAW.

when we are born, we are held to the LAW due to our inherited sin.
but Yeshua was never held to the LAW because He was sinless.
this is why He could fulfill it and end it.

big big difference.

the LAW is key here.
Yeshua had to be SINLESS to replace the LAW!!


do you still believe you are held under the LAW?

or

do you believe you are under the GRACE of God?




if you believe you are under GRACE, then you must understand that could only happen by someone fulfilling it who never had sin attached to them. and if you feel Yeshua fulfilled the LAW and now you are under GRACE due to Him, you must accept He never was truly like us with sin. because one minute spec of sin would have caused Him to be held to the LAW. and that meant He could not fulfill it or end it.

but if you believe He did fulfill and end the LAW, then you must believe it's because He was sinless in ALL THINGS from birth till He drank the CUP.



I noticed you avoided me on this point, Devotiontobible.
you dislike facts?
 
Jan 6, 2018
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Hebrews 2:17 Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people.

Romans 5:12 Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men [and women] because all sinned

Your argument is based on the idea that "every" in Hebrews 2:17 means "absolutely every", but "all" in Romans 5:12 does not mean "absolutely all".

As I have said before, your position is inconsistent. It really is that simple.
It most certainly does mean absolutely "all" humanity since absolutely everyone was in the loins of Adam when he sinned.