Simple...why wasn't justification by faith taught for the 1300 years in the established catholic church before Luther came and said "The just shall live by faith"? When you find the answer for that - you'll find your answer.
Why wasn't it "normal" for 1300 years for people to live by faith in Christ's work?
There have also been some throughout history that have spoke with tongues just as I bet there were those for 1300 years that believed they were saved by faith - even though the religious leaders told them different.
Here are links showing this to be true.
https://www.cai.org/bible-studies/evidence-speaking-tongues-early-church
Talking Pentecostalism: The history of tongues
As, I said before - trying to tell me that speaking in tongues to our Father is not for today is foolishness as I speak constantly to my Father and hundreds of millions of other "believers" do as well. This is like an atheist trying to tell me that Jesus is not real.
Thanks for the links. They did not convince me, that speaking in tongues is for today. It is known that special in mission situations God is working often is working in miracules ways. This we can see in awakenings and preaching the gospel. But since the first pentecostals were sent to mission field, because they spoke the language of the folk the went to. And then find out that this was temporay and went discouraged, speaking in tongues was seen as for the believer in the church ore for himself. This teaching you can not find in the churchhistorie.
in this link there is mentioned also:
[h=2]A.D. 390 - Chrysostom of Constantinople:[/h] Chrysostom, Bishop of Constantinople, writes: "Whoever was baptised in apostolic days, he straightway spoke with tongues, for since on their coming over from idols, without any clear knowledge or training in the Scriptures, they at once received the Spirit, not that they saw the Spirit, for He is invisible, but God's grace bestowed some sensible proof of His energy, and one straightway spoke in the Persian language, another in the Roman, another in the Indian, another in some other tongues, and this made manifest to them that were without that it was the Spirit in the very person speaking. Wherefore the apostle calls it the manifestation of the Spirit which is given to every man to profit withal."
Sorry, Chrysostom is speaking clearly from the apostolic time (if I am not wrong) and not from the presence time. And the scripture which is used to explain why it is for us today are often took out of the context (f.e. Joel 2)
And as I wrote, speaking in tongues was in germany not before 1907 when people came from norway and before this from azusa street. That means the sign gifts of the Holy Spirit was not working in germany and many other countrys too.
I believe you are speaking in tongues, as many other also do, christians and non christians. My question is whats behind?
And why the sign gifts are not giving to all christians in all times? The example with Luther fit not realy, because we are speaking from the doing of the Holy Spirit which is giving the gifts according his will. We can create doctrines so much as we want, but we can not have comand over the Holy Spirit. Also i cant read in the scripture from a second pentecost, and a new sending from the Holy Spirit which should enlighten the world.
