I'm just wondering how you think that preaching the Lord Jesus to the Jews as their Messiah and King you could POSSIBLY separate His Suffering and Death and consequent Resurrection?
Especially considering what the Prophets said about Him. And what the Lord Jesus told them about Himself.
And yet, in Acts 3, this is exactly what Peter is saying to "ye men of Israel".
That they had overlooked/bypassed the "Suffering Servant" aspects of the prophecies concerning Him (expecting only the "Reigning King" aspects of the prophecies concerning Him), and thus (by doing so) having (themselves) a hand in fulfilling those very prophecies (the "Suffering Servant" ones, which they had overlooked/bypassed).
The following is a post I made on that, some time back:
[quoting--only read this if you care to think further on what I stated above; if not, it's fine, plz disregard]
Acts 3:21 [speaking to
"ye men of Israel," v.12 (unsaved persons as noted in v.13-15,17,19)] then states: "whom indeed it behooves heaven to receive
until the time
s of restoration
of all things of which God spoke by the mouth of His holy prophets from the age."
[in contrast to that which He had theretofore kept "hidden in God"/was
as yet undisclosed]
In vv.13 and 26 the phrase "His
Servant Jesus" (they had not been expecting the "suffering servant" aspects of His Person, only the "reigning-in-power King" aspects, though both aspects had been prophesied in the OT; chpt 3's point is Peter telling them they'd overlooked the former of these two aspects ['His Suffering Servant'], and thus had a hand [themselves] in fulfilling that very thing, vv.13-15), but this was not saying that "everything" was at this point in time (the time of Acts 3)
fully fulfilled; and...
...there are TWO "raise" senses spoken of in Acts 3... v.15 speaking of His being "raised from the dead," but the other being "raised" to a position of prominence BEFORE His death (that is, to the position of 'a Prophet like unto Moses'...'raise up unto you of your brethren like unto me [Moses]; him shall
ye hear in all things whatsoever he shall
say unto you' and '
UNTO YOU FIRST God, having raised up [to a position of prominence BEFORE His death] His
Servant Jesus,
SENT him to bless
you, in turning away
every one of you from his iniquities'). The "ALL things which God spoke by the mouth of His holy prophets" (meaning, OT prophecies) have not yet been fully fulfilled, but remain for a
yet-future time
[end quoting that post]
I suppose you could just call all of it "vague hints" and continue in trying to have 2 gospels. One for Jews and one for Gentiles.
The point Peter is making in Acts 3, is that BECAUSE they had overlooked/bypassed the "Suffering Servant" aspects of the OT prophecies concerning Him, they thus had a hand in fulfilling those very prophecies, in having Him "killed" (etc), vv.13-15.
Amillennialists (and other views) are notorious for missing the point here in Acts 3. Peter is NOT saying (in this text) "all is [now] fully fulfilled"... he's saying, (essentially), "you MISSED the parts where He's a 'Suffering Servant' in all of the OT prophecies concerning Him ["His SERVANT Jesus" vv.13,26], and therefore you participated in fulfilling THOSE" (by your rejection of Him and having Him put to death)… He's not saying "this is the ENTIRETY of the OT prophecies [concerning Him] NOW [as] FULLY FULFILLED, here [in '
these days']"<--Peter's just saying, THESE DAYS were spoken of TOO (and you MISSED *THOSE/THESE* aspects of the OT prophecies concerning Him, and thus FULFILLED *these* aspects by having a hand, yourselves, in having Him "killed" [etc])
[see John 20:9 also, re:
Peter and that other disciple at the sepulchre (it is
only said of "that other disciple" [
not said of Peter!] that "he saw [the grave clothes] AND BELIEVED")]
I'm saying, they didn't "preach" THIS, until 
