So...Scripture says Paul put aside the law, but through study you've made it say something else? The question I asked is a simple yes or no question, was Paul sinning when he became as one without the law to reach those without the law in 1 Corinthians 9:21?
You accused me of adding to the word, yet here you are saying you had to study extensively for 3 months to avoid the plain words of Scripture. Sounds like you're adding things to me.
What do we do, then with the scriptures telling us the law is not put aside?
Rom_3:31 Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.
Rom_6:2 God forbid. How shall we, that are dead to sin, live any longer therein?
Rom_6:15 What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid.
Rom_7:7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.
Rom_7:13 Was then that which is good made death unto me? God forbid. But sin, that it might appear sin, working death in me by that which is good; that sin by the commandment might become exceeding sinful.
Rom_9:14 What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid.
1Co_6:15 Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid.
Gal_2:17 But if, while we seek to be justified by Christ, we ourselves also are found sinners, is therefore Christ the minister of sin? God forbid.
Gal_3:21 Is the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law.