King James Bible ONLY? Or NOT?

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Nov 23, 2013
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It is if you claim that this is possible only with a single translation...
What does the number of translation haveto do with anything... is ok to worship multiple translations but not one?
 
Jun 1, 2016
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"What is the difference between being born from above and born again by the word of God?"

1 john 5:7 "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."

John 1:14 "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

john 1:12 "....
as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name

1 john 5:8 "
And there are three that bear witness in earth, the spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.

1 john 5:6 "
This is he that came by water and blood, even Jesus Christ; not by water only, but by water and blood. And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is truth

John 6:63 "It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.

John 3:6 "That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.

John 17:8 "For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me.
john 17:17 "
[FONT=&quot]Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth.

1 peter 1:23 "[/FONT]
Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.

matthew 25:34 "Heaven and earth shall pass away: but my words shall not pass away.

[FONT=&quot]john 8:51" [/FONT]Verily, verily, I say unto you, If a man keep my saying, he shall never see death.[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT]
 
Nov 23, 2013
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The same Spirit that rose Jesus from the grave in Romans 8 v 11. The same Spirit that lives in you. The same Spirit that Jesus spoke to Nicodemus of. That would be the Spirit of God, what other Spirit are you referring too? The implications are that it is the Spirit of God or the Holy Spirit. I am not as scholarly as some, but I can believe that when Jesus and God are referring to the Spirit, that they are referring to themself. The Holy Spirit.
I would assume that the Holy Spirit raised Christ from the dead and all believers have the Holy Spirit at salvation

John 7:39 KJV
(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given ; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)

Our second birth is the birth of the Spirit of Christ in us and it is birthed in us by the word of God. This is the same Spirit that was in the Old Testament saints.

1 Peter 1:10-11 KJV
Of which salvation the prophets have enquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you:
[11] Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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I gotta go, I'm exhausted.
 

Sagart

Senior Member
May 7, 2017
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Where do you get this from? What more do you have to go on than the ARAMAIC definition of elahh?

אֱלָהּʼĕlâhh, el-aw'; (Aramaic) corresponding to H433; God:—God, god.
I wrote,

Daniel 2:4 – 7:28 is written in Aramaic rather than in Hebrew, and the although the Hebrew word for God, ’ĕlôhim, is used with a singular force in the Hebrew parts of the Old Testament, the Aramaic word for God, ’ělâhîn (found in Daniel 3:25), is always plural.​

My assertion is supported by S. R. Driver who, in his 1900 commentary on Daniel, writes, “The rendering ‘the son of God cannot stand’ : ’ĕlôhim is, indeed, used with a singular force in Hebrew, but the Aram. ’ělâhîn is always a true plural.”

My assertion is also supported by John E Goldingay who, in his 1989 commentary on Daniel, writes that the Aramaic word ’ělâhîn is never used in a singular sense in any other biblical literature.

My assertion is also supported by John Stephen R. Miller who, in his 1994 commentary on Daniel writes, “What impressed Nebuchadnezzar most of all was that now the three Jews had been joined by a fourth man, and this one looked like “a son of the gods.” He cites the commentaries by Driver and Goldingay to support his comment and his translation of Dan.3:25.

Furthermore, my assertion is also supported by all of the very best translations of the Old Testament by Christian scholars (ASV, RSV, NRSV, NASB, ESV, NAB); and also by the Jewish Publication Society’s 1917 translation of the Tenakh,

Dan. 3:25. He answered and said: ‘Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods.’

Additionally, Martin Luther, in his 1534 translation of the Bible, translates Daniel 3:25b as, “und der vierte ist gleich, als ware er ein Sohn der Gotter (“and the fourth is like a son of the gods). And the 1951 German Schlachter Bible translates Daniel 3:25b as, “und die Gestalt des vierten gleicht einem Sohne der Götter! “(“and the figure of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”)

Moreover, Nebuchadnezzar was not a Christian; he was a Babylonian—and hence he was polytheistic rather than monotheistic in his beliefs. Therefore, whatever or whoever he may have seen in the furnace, he most certainly would not have described him as, “like the Son of God.” What is more, the use of the incorrect phrase, “like the Son of God”, in the KJV makes it appear as though the Book of Daniel is a fictional work by a Christian author rather than the inspired word of God.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
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Hoti has nothing to do with anything because Daniel is talking about the evil that would come upon the Jews if the Jews didn't do everything God commanded them to do at any point in history.

Deuteronomy 28:15 KJV
But it shall come to pass, if thou wilt not hearken unto the voice of the Lord thy God, to observe to do all his commandments and his statutes which I command thee this day; that all these curses shall come upon thee, and overtake thee:

Daniel is saying that as it is written (Deuteronomy 28:15-68) ALL those curses have come upon US.... present tense - his day.

Daniel 9:13 KJV
As it is written in the law of Moses, all this evil is come upon us: yet made we not our prayer before the Lord our God, that we might turn from our iniquities, and understand thy truth.

Daniel is speaking of the evil that has come upon us (present time in his day). Does that make sense, Dueteronomy didn't mention anything about the evil that would come in Daniel's day... The curse of Dueteronomy 28 is for ALL TIMES, not just Daniels day. I realize English is not your first language so I hope this makes sense. :)

Hoti is a Greek way how to say that the following is a direct quotation. So it has almost everything with the fact that it is not in Daniel (who does not quote) and it is in Mark, who quotes :)
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
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I talked about the LXX because it was brought up in my discussion with Trofimus. I'm not a supporter of the LXX and I don't use it because in the small amount of time I've spent reading it I have found many mistakes.

My position is that the KJV Old Testament doesn't match the New Testament word for word because the New Testament isn't qouting the Old Testament. The last verses Trofimus and I spoke about was Daniel 9:13 where Daniel says "as it is written".

Daniel 9:13 KJV
As it is written in the law of Moses, all this evil is come upon us: yet made we not our prayer before the Lord our God, that we might turn from our iniquities, and understand thy truth.
And I said that in Daniel 9:13 "hoti" is missing, but is in Mark. Also there is kathós instead of hós. Which makes Mark 7:7 a direct quotation. :)

BTW, you still did not respond to my comparison of Mark and OT:

OK, it got mixed.

We should not compare the KJV New Testament to LXX, but KJV New Testament to KJV Old Testament and see if it fits better than the Greek NT fits with the Greek OT:

------

English "consistency":

Is 29:13
"...this people... have removed their heart far from me,
and their fear toward me is taught by the precept of men."

Mk 7:6,7
"It is written,
This people... their heart is far from me.
Howbeit in vain do they worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men."

------

Greek consistency:

Is 29:13
ὁ λαὸς οὗτος... ἡ δὲ καρδία αὐτῶν πόρρω ἀπέχει ἀπ᾿ ἐμοῦ·
μάτην δὲ σέβονταί με διδάσκοντες ἐντάλματα ἀνθρώπων καὶ διδασκαλίας

Mk 7:6,7
ὡς γέγραπται,
Οὗτος ὁ λαὸς... ἡ δὲ καρδία αὐτῶν πόρρω ἀπέχει ἀπ’ ἐμοῦ.
Μάτην δὲ σέβονταί με, διδάσκοντες διδασκαλίας ἐντάλματα ἀνθρώπων.

-------

Summary:

a) In English, we have these problems:
- heart is far vs they removed their heart far
- the part about "vain worship" disappeared completely
- the part about fear is added
- the word "doctrines" disappeared
- the word "commandments" disappeared
- meaning is changed: "their fear is taught by something" vs "they worship me in vain, because they are teaching something", passive vs active change

b) In Greek, we have these problems:
- word "kai" (and) is added in Mark


Conclusion: The English is perfect and not corrupted at all Right? If you simply compare it this way you must see how futile it is to defend the KJV "version"....
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
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What does the number of translation haveto do with anything... is ok to worship multiple translations but not one?
Where does the Bible say we can worship it? :)
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Where does the Bible say we can worship it? :)
If the Spirit of Christ is in the written word, how am I not worshipping Christ? Mary kissed Jesus' feet in worship, was Mary worshipping the flesh body of Jesus or was she worshipping the Spirit of Christ?

I'll respond to your other posts later brother. :)
 
Nov 23, 2013
13,684
1,212
113
"What is the difference between being born from above and born again by the word of God?"

1 john 5:7 "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."John 1:14 "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

john 1:12 "....
as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name

1 john 5:8 "
And there are three that bear witness in earth, the spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.

1 john 5:6 "
This is he that came by water and blood, even Jesus Christ; not by water only, but by water and blood. And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is truth

John 6:63 "It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.

John 3:6 "That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.

John 17:8 "For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me.
john 17:17 "
Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth.

1 peter 1:23 "
Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.

matthew 25:34 "Heaven and earth shall pass away: but my words shall not pass away.

john 8:51" Verily, verily, I say unto you, If a man keep my saying, he shall never see death.
You need to fix 1 John 5:17, the "earliest and best manuscripts" don't contain the Father, the Word and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one at the end of that verse. I'm being factious of course! :)

1 John 5:7 New American Standard Bible (NASB)

7 For there are three that testify:
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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I had nothing to read or memorize except the KJV as a child growing up. Because of that, I missed the gospel message. Now, that is the opposite of what some of you KJV Onlyists are saying. In fact, I think it is much harder to be saved reading the KJV than a modern version.

But then, I am not caught in a Satanic delusion which says that the KJV is the only version which saves someone, am I?
You missed the gospel message in the KJV? What? The gospel is given in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4. How did you miss that? It must have been your teachers who missed it.

The satanic delusion says that all versions are God's word because words or truth is not important. You take us right back to the garden with that thought. Individual words are important to God. Truth is important to God. Angela, I ask you to reconsider your beliefs on the word of God. God has promised to preserve His words for us. They are found perfected in the KJV. Not one thing you or someone else has said against the KJV has stuck as truth. Please do more research.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
794
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If the Spirit of Christ is in the written word, how am I not worshipping Christ? Mary kissed Jesus' feet in worship, was Mary worshipping the flesh body of Jesus or was she worshipping the Spirit of Christ?

I'll respond to your other posts later brother. :)
Spirit of Christ is not in the written words. Spirit of Christ is not in the creation.

There is a differerence between God and His creation. Creation is not part of God therefore its idolatry to worship stone, the ark of Covenant or the Bible.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
794
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You missed the gospel message in the KJV? What? The gospel is given in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4. How did you miss that? It must have been your teachers who missed it.

The satanic delusion says that all versions are God's word because words or truth is not important. You take us right back to the garden with that thought. Individual words are important to God. Truth is important to God. Angela, I ask you to reconsider your beliefs on the word of God. God has promised to preserve His words for us. They are found perfected in the KJV. Not one thing you or someone else has said against the KJV has stuck as truth. Please do more research.
Where does God say that they are found perfect in the KJV?
 

hornetguy

Senior Member
Jan 18, 2016
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So the spirit of Christ in the written word speaks to me and that's considered idol worship? The bible says the word of God is ALIVE and a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart.... is it?
Again... the only worship we are to give is to God.

ANYTHING else is idolatry.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,794
3,573
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Where does God say that they are found perfect in the KJV?
God promised to preserve His words. Where are God's words preserved? Can God preserve them in the English language? Is that possible with God? They are preserved in the English language through the KJV. Not one soul has convinced me otherwise.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,794
3,573
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Again... the only worship we are to give is to God.

ANYTHING else is idolatry.
Psalm 138:2 I will worship toward thy holy temple, and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth: for thou hast magnified thy word above all thy name.

Yes, we worship the God of the word, but in order to do that, we exalt the word even above His name. If His word is not exalted, His name is not exalted.

When you got saved, where you trusting in the word of God or the Savior of the word? The two cannot be separated.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
794
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God promised to preserve His words. Where are God's words preserved? Can God preserve them in the English language? Is that possible with God? They are preserved in the English language through the KJV. Not one soul has convinced me otherwise.
Rhetorical questions are not proofs. Where does God say the KJV translation is perfect?
 
Nov 23, 2013
13,684
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I wrote,
Daniel 2:4 – 7:28 is written in Aramaic rather than in Hebrew, and the although the Hebrew word for God, ’ĕlôhim, is used with a singular force in the Hebrew parts of the Old Testament, the Aramaic word for God, ’ělâhîn (found in Daniel 3:25), is always plural.​

My assertion is supported by S. R. Driver who, in his 1900 commentary on Daniel, writes, “The rendering ‘the son of God cannot stand’ : ’ĕlôhim is, indeed, used with a singular force in Hebrew, but the Aram. ’ělâhîn is always a true plural.”

My assertion is also supported by John E Goldingay who, in his 1989 commentary on Daniel, writes that the Aramaic word ’ělâhîn is never used in a singular sense in any other biblical literature.

My assertion is also supported by John Stephen R. Miller who, in his 1994 commentary on Daniel writes, “What impressed Nebuchadnezzar most of all was that now the three Jews had been joined by a fourth man, and this one looked like “a son of the gods.” He cites the commentaries by Driver and Goldingay to support his comment and his translation of Dan.3:25.

Furthermore, my assertion is also supported by all of the very best translations of the Old Testament by Christian scholars (ASV, RSV, NRSV, NASB, ESV, NAB); and also by the Jewish Publication Society’s 1917 translation of the Tenakh,

Dan. 3:25. He answered and said: ‘Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods.’

Additionally, Martin Luther, in his 1534 translation of the Bible, translates Daniel 3:25b as, “und der vierte ist gleich, als ware er ein Sohn der Gotter (“and the fourth is like a son of the gods). And the 1951 German Schlachter Bible translates Daniel 3:25b as, “und die Gestalt des vierten gleicht einem Sohne der Götter! “(“and the figure of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”)

Moreover, Nebuchadnezzar was not a Christian; he was a Babylonian—and hence he was polytheistic rather than monotheistic in his beliefs. Therefore, whatever or whoever he may have seen in the furnace, he most certainly would not have described him as, “like the Son of God.” What is more, the use of the incorrect phrase, “like the Son of God”, in the KJV makes it appear as though the Book of Daniel is a fictional work by a Christian author rather than the inspired word of God.
Ok, if ’ělâhîn is ALWAYS plural then Daniel 2:47 should have been translated "that your gods is the gods of gods". Is this correct?


[TABLE="width: 608"]
[TR]
[TD]The king answered unto Daniel, and said, Of a truth it is, that your God H426 is a God H426 of gods, H426 and a Lord of kings, and a revealer of secrets, seeing thou couldest reveal this secret.[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]