King James Bible ONLY? Or NOT?

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Nov 23, 2013
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I think you have that psalm wrong. Its not about Bible, but about Israel.

"Because of the misery of the poor, and because of the sighing of the needy, now will I arise, saith the Lord, I will set [them] in safety; I will speak [to them] thereof openly.

The oracles of the Lord are pure oracles; as silver tried in the fire, proved [in] a furnace of earth, purified seven times.

Thou, O Lord, shalt keep us, and shalt preserve us, from this generation, and for ever."


LXX
How are the poor and needy preserved? What does that mean?
 
Nov 23, 2013
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So then do you feel like the KJV has 1 John 5:7 accurately translated? Especially when we look at its historical evolution from earlier manuscripts?
I'm sure why I would not believe it's translated accurately. I know the verse is true. Are you getting at the verse is not in the earlist manuscripts?
 
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pckts

Guest
No I don't consider it blasphemy. If I ever find an error I will admit and I will deal with it.
ok, I'm gonna go drink wine out of a box. You are wrong about your interpretation of the parable of Matthew 9:15, start there and you will see the parable only works with wineskin because of an "anachronism".
 

notbythesword

Senior Member
Apr 28, 2015
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I'm sure why I would not believe it's translated accurately. I know the verse is true. Are you getting at the verse is not in the earlist manuscripts?

It was never in any of the earliest manuscripts for centuries. Not one. It’s why the KJV usually will have a footnote in it regarding this fact. My question would be, why didn’t the scribes of the KJV know this fact?
 
Nov 23, 2013
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"Us" refer to the people of God, generally. Lord will arise and save His people.
I disagree but that's ok. Why do think the bit about the words of the Lord being pure words were thrown in the middle of the chapter.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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It was never in any of the earliest manuscripts for centuries. Not one. It’s why the KJV usually will have a footnote in it regarding this fact. My question would be, why didn’t the scribes of the KJV know this fact?
My KJV doesn't have footnotes so I don't know why.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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ok, I'm gonna go drink wine out of a box. You are wrong about your interpretation of the parable of Matthew 9:15, start there and you will see the parable only works with wineskin because of an "anachronism".
NEW wine is found in the cluster.... God doesn't deal with fermented wine.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
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I disagree but that's ok. Why do think the bit about the words of the Lord being pure words were thrown in the middle of the chapter.
Oracles. Probably mean oracles about the people of God. God will keep His promises and will preserve His people for ever.

Quite a simple and clear idea.

I am afraid that you are in a circle reasoning, as somebody said. There must be a perfect word of God (KJV), because God promised it (in KJV).

All other Bibles I have checked have this verse differently.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Oracles. Probably mean oracles about the people of God. God will keep His promises and will preserve His people for ever.

Quite a simple and clear idea.

I am afraid that you are in a circle reasoning, as somebody said. There must be a perfect word of God (KJV), because God promised it (in KJV).

All other Bibles I have checked have this verse differently.
I know, the KJV is different than all the rest. So you really don't think God preserved his word? I mean total preservation where every intent of the originals being passed on to each generation?
 
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trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
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I know, the KJV is different than all the rest. So you really don't think God preserved his word? I mean total preservation where every intent of the originals being passed on to each generation?
I do not think God preserved His word for every generation in the same level of accuracy.

But I think God preserved His word in the suitable accuracy for all of His people in every time.

Like you said "we can still get the message". Even 21 centuries after the autographs. It is a preservation.
But not in the automatic copying style where every bit is the same.
 
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pckts

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I know, the KJV is different than all the rest. So you really don't think God preserved his word? I mean total preservation where every intent of the originals being passed on to each generation?
Guess what? Every translation is different than all the rest, or it would be the same as one.
 

notbythesword

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Apr 28, 2015
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I don't believe footnotes are inspired. Point is taken, I believe 1 John 5:7 should be in the bible, it doesn't contradict any other doctrine in the bible and the same theme can be found in several places in the bible.
Footnotes aren’t inspired. That’s not what we’re talking about. We’re talking about denying history. So do you deny that this passage was later changed in Greek manuscripts or not? Do you deny the history and scholars or not?
 

trofimus

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Aug 17, 2015
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Guess what? Every translation is different than all the rest, or it would be the same as one.
It was meant that only the KJV has it like it is the word that is preserved while all other translations have it like it is the people who are preserved.
 

Sagart

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May 7, 2017
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OK, but what you are saying is not "preservation", but "new word", inspired English version.

Psalm is talking about the word in that generation, i.e. Pentateuch. That generation did not have NT, Psalms, Prophets etc. And it was in Hebrew, not in English.

So... are you not taking it too much into extremw?
משׁד עניים מאנקת אביונים עתה אקום יאמר יהוה אשׁית בישׁע יפיח לו׃ Psalms 12:6

The Hebrew word יְהֹוָה in this sentence is a tetragrammaton transliterated as YHWH or JHVH and pronounced as Yahweh or Jehovah. The Jewish people have, for well over two millennia, believed that this name is too sacred to be pronounced, or used in written form unnecessarily. Therefore, the word אֲדֹנָי (Adonai) meaning Lord is substituted. The American Standard Version gives us a literal translation:

Psalms 12:6 The words of Jehovah are pure words; As silver tried in a furnace on the earth, Purified seven times.

This is a very important fact because it further proves the absolute absurdly and incorrectness of the ridiculous claim that “the words of the Lord” in Psalm 12:6 is a reference to the Bible. Indeed, the expression “the word of God” is found four times in the Old Testament, and in none of these places is the tetragrammaton יְהֹוָה used.
 
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pckts

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It was meant that only the KJV has it like it is the word that is preserved while all other translations have it like it is the people who are preserved.
My mistake.

Weren't the KJV writers forced to change the word church and assembly to uniformly be the world "church"?
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Footnotes aren’t inspired. That’s not what we’re talking about. We’re talking about denying history. So do you deny that this passage was later changed in Greek manuscripts or not? Do you deny the history and scholars or not?
I don't trust history... Barrack Obama won the Nobel peace prize lol. I don't know anything about the history of the originals. I don't base inerrancy on words matching the originals. I always get caught up in debating about original languages and used to be interested in that but it's really a waste of my time and I don't have time to learn another language to understand the bible. If that works for you, more power to ya.
 

notbythesword

Senior Member
Apr 28, 2015
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I don't trust history... Barrack Obama won the Nobel peace prize lol. I don't know anything about the history of the originals. I don't base inerrancy on words matching the originals. I always get caught up in debating about original languages and used to be interested in that but it's really a waste of my time and I don't have time to learn another language to understand the bible. If that works for you, more power to ya.
Then your post #1057 where you said “If I ever find an error I will admit and I will deal with it” cannot be considered truthful. You just proved that you are not able to “deal with it”. You only believe in what the KJV tells you, and therefore, you cannot ever find an error…can you?