KJV translators weren't KJV only!

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Dino246

Dino246

Senior Member
#82
Jun 30, 2015
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#82
John146 said:
You danced around the question. Which one is it, or neither. It obv cannot be both. My point, two versions cannot both be called the word of God.
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Yes, they can. Your ignorance of translational issues limits your understanding of this matter.
 
J

John146

Senior Member
#83
Jan 13, 2016
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#83
Dino246 said:
Which, consistent with the reasoning you employ, is evidence that the KJV is wrong.
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Do you believe that any version is the word of God?

Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth.
 
J

justbyfaith

Well-known member
#85
Sep 16, 2021
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#85
Dino246 said:
I have read the entire Bible many times. What is your point?
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My point is in the scriptures that I referenced to you.

If you think that you do not need to read them because you already know the Bible, perhaps they apply to you more than I previously thought.
 
Dino246

Dino246

Senior Member
#86
Jun 30, 2015
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#86
Icedaisey said:
I didn't see where you pointed out my observations prior to my quoted post.



I don't know that his work drives people from the faith. Ehrman was a Christian, now turned to Agnostic.

He's a scholar and professor of NT studies and invests in the field of textual criticism.

Teaching the history of how the canon came to exist shouldn't turn people from wanting to learn about Christ.

And we know no one can take us from Christ.
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… Perhaps; I’m not interested in arguing that point. Like the rocks, birds and weeds in the parable if the sower, Ehrman steers people away from Jesus.
 
Dino246

Dino246

Senior Member
#87
Jun 30, 2015
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#87
justbyfaith said:
No, it really indicates that the modern translations are faulty / watered down.
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No, it doesn’t at all. Your view is based on the presumption that the KjV is correct, and your reasoning is circular.
 
Dino246

Dino246

Senior Member
#88
Jun 30, 2015
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#88
justbyfaith said:
My point is in the scriptures that I referenced to you.

If you think that you do not need to read them because you already know the Bible, perhaps they apply to you more than I previously thought.
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Snark and personal attacks will get you absolutely nowhere with me. Don’t be a jackdonkey.
 
J

justbyfaith

Well-known member
#90
Sep 16, 2021
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#90
Dino246 said:
No, it doesn’t at all. Your view is based on the presumption that the KjV is correct, and your reasoning is circular.
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Your view is based on the presumption that the kjv is incorrect. How is your reasoning also not circular?
 
J

John146

Senior Member
#91
Jan 13, 2016
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#91
Dino246 said:
Go back and read the OP.
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The OP is wrong in his thinking. That's the point. Duck and diving the question at hand. Can more than one version be the word of God when they contain different words and different truths?

Do you believe the KJV is the word of God?
 
J

justbyfaith

Well-known member
#92
Sep 16, 2021
4,707
462
83
#92
John146 said:
The OP is wrong in his thinking. That's the point. Duck and diving the question at hand. Can more than one version be the word of God when they contain different words and different truths?

Do you believe the KJV is the word of God?
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I do.
 
Dino246

Dino246

Senior Member
#93
Jun 30, 2015
24,853
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#93
John146 said:
The OP is wrong in his thinking. That's the point. Duck and diving the question at hand. Can more than one version be the word of God when they contain different words and different truths?

Do you believe the KJV is the word of God?
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No, the OP is not wrong. He is making the point that even the KJV translators themselves did not hold to the idea that any translation was perfect (and I don’t mean ‘complete’ or ‘mature’) and they did hold the idea that various translations are actually the word of God even if they are considerably less than perfect.

I’m not going to answer your leading question.
 
J

John146

Senior Member
#94
Jan 13, 2016
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#94
Dino246 said:
No, the OP is not wrong. He is making the point that even the KJV translators themselves did not hold to the idea that any translation was perfect (and I don’t mean ‘complete’ or ‘mature’) and they did hold the idea that various translations are actually the word of God even if they are considerably less than perfect.

I’m not going to answer your leading question.
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Ok, now we are getting somewhere...you and the OP do not believe the word of God is anywhere to be found in any translation. At least that's settles. Was that so hard to finally admit?
 
Dino246

Dino246

Senior Member
#95
Jun 30, 2015
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#95
justbyfaith said:
Your view is based on the presumption that the kjv is incorrect. How is your reasoning also not circular?
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Actually, my comments are based on an evidence-based conclusion, not a presumption or assumption.
 
Dino246

Dino246

Senior Member
#96
Jun 30, 2015
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#96
John146 said:
Ok, now we are getting somewhere...you and the OP do not believe the word of God is anywhere to be found in any translation. At least that's settles. Was that so hard to finally admit?
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Wrong again… as usual.
 
J

justbyfaith

Well-known member
#97
Sep 16, 2021
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#97
John146 said:
Ok, now we are getting somewhere...you and the OP do not believe the word of God is anywhere to be found in any translation. At least that's settles. Was that so hard to finally admit?
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Sad...
 
J

John146

Senior Member
#99
Jan 13, 2016
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#99
Dino246 said:
No, the OP is not wrong. He is making the point that even the KJV translators themselves did not hold to the idea that any translation was perfect (and I don’t mean ‘complete’ or ‘mature’) and they did hold the idea that various translations are actually the word of God even if they are considerably less than perfect.

I’m not going to answer your leading question.
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You are in agreement with the OP. The OP clearly stated that the word of God is not found in any translation.
 
Dino246

Dino246

Senior Member
#100
Jun 30, 2015
24,853
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#100
John146 said:
You are in agreement with the OP. The OP clearly stated that the word of God is not found in any translation.
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Not in the opening post, he didn’t. I do agree with the opening post.
 
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