The Immaculate Conception Error

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Cassian

Senior Member
Oct 12, 2013
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#41
The answer to this is actually simple, we all have sinful seed because as you said we have sinful fathers. Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit in Mary, we all understand that but something interesting is that once an egg is fertilised in a woman's womb there is no blood coming from the mommy to the fetus. Since the first minute this little baby/fetus will create its own blood.

Jesus was without sin because His seed was without sin.

Isa 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
Scripture disagrees with you. Scripture says He is without sin BECAUSE He did NOT sin. All of you are espousing different aspects of the same false theory of Original Sin.
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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#42
Scripture disagrees with you. Scripture says He is without sin BECAUSE He did NOT sin. All of you are espousing different aspects of the same false theory of Original Sin.
Original sin is an unquestionable fact. We sin because of what we were when we were born. More difficult is defining it exactly.

Scripture actually says He KNEW no sin.
 
Sep 4, 2012
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#43
Original sin is an unquestionable fact. We sin because of what we were when we were born. More difficult is defining it exactly.

Scripture actually says He KNEW no sin.
The way I see it is that all men are born with a dead spirit, which is their inheritance from their father Adam. A dead spirit is separated from GOD, and therefore cannot perfectly know the will of GOD. Without this perfect knowledge, man at some point will do his own will and sin.
 

Cassian

Senior Member
Oct 12, 2013
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#44
Original sin is an unquestionable fact. We sin because of what we were when we were born. More difficult is defining it exactly.

Scripture actually says He KNEW no sin.
If by Original Sin you are referring to the theory then it is unscriptural. But if you are referring to the fact that Adam sinned, thus the first sin or original sin you would be correct. Our primary problem is NOT the sin of Adam but its consequence.

All of the arguments surrounding the theory of Original Sin separate Christ's humanity away from man, thus making man unlike who we are. IF Christ is not really like us in all ways, then He cannot save us.
 
K

KennethC

Guest
#45
Original sin is an unquestionable fact. We sin because of what we were when we were born. More difficult is defining it exactly.

Scripture actually says He KNEW no sin.
If you are speaking on original sin in the aspect that because by Adam's transgression sin entered the world, then yes !!!

But if you are trying to say we inherit and are sinful from the get go and condemned minute we are born, then you are wrong because the bible shows until a person reaches the age to know right from wrong sin is not accounted against them.
Mary's sins would not have been passed on to Christ making Him guilty of her sins, as I gave scripture from Ezekiel 18 that disproves such thinking.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
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#46
Here we go again....

1] He isn't a lamb. That's a metaphor.

2] He was without spot, meaning He never sinned.

Are you telling me that if Jesus as the son of man assumed our sinful nature that would make Him a sinner? If so, prove it!
again it is not what I am saying no where in the bible does it show Jesus hAD A "sinful nature". That is the point and you nor I can fully understand the "Godhead". The Sinful nature d&A is sin period . The short answer to your question is: No, Jesus did not inherit the sin nature from Adam. Jesus came to succeed where Adam failed. Jesus is called the "last Adam" (1 Corinthians 15:45 And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.
and the "second man" (1 Corinthians 15:47The first man is of the earth, earthy; the second man is the Lord from heaven.
. Jesus testified that He came "to seek and to save that which was lost" (Luke 19:10For the Son of man is come to seek and to save that which was lost.
. What was lost in Adam was to be won in Jesus Christ. However, in order to do this, he only needed to start where Adam started, not where he ended.


Much of the purpose of the virgin birth was to allow Jesus to be fully human but without the Adamic nature. Joseph was "the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ" (Matthew 1:16 And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.
. Joseph was not the father of Jesus. Jesus did not receive the sinful nature of Joseph. However, He was born in the natural body and in the full likeness of sinful flesh. Romans 8:3For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
states, "For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh." He was born in the flesh, but the inner sin nature was not His nature. He was only born in the "likeness" of sinful flesh. If He had had a sin nature, John could not have said of Him, "in him is no sin" (1 John 3:5And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
and Paul could not have spoken of Him as the one "who knew no sin" (2 Corinthians 5:21For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
.
again it is not what I am saying it is what the Bible shows us :)
 
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CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
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#47
What I find ironic is that Protestants criticize the RCC for Immaculate Conception of Mary, but they do the very same thing respective of who Christ is in his humanity.

The RCC adopted the theory of Original Sin at the Council of Trent in the mid 17th century. It was only later that they realized their mistake and instead of abandoning the theory, they created the Immaculate Conception theory.
Most, if not all Protestants, hold to the Original Sin theory as well. To overcome this error I have read all kinds of end-arounds that try to explain that Jesus did not have a sin nature which is the basis of Original Sin.

So, while some of you as Protestants castigate the RCC you do the very same thing as they did.
FYI I am not protestant :)
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
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#48
Yes, as God Christ only had the divine nature, but as man he assumed our fallen nature.

it would be nice if that could be shown in and with scripture?
 
Oct 3, 2015
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#49
So when Christ died for sins He died for His own?!
Christ had no sin. Your old life died with Christ (see Rom 6:6/7:4) The law demands your death and Christ, in becoming the last Adam, took your old life to the eternal grave. That's the curse of the law.
 
Oct 3, 2015
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#52
Jesus was the Word made flesh...anyone who believes that flesh was sinful must also believe the Word itself is sinful.

The Holy Spirit resides in the believer. The believer is still sinful and has a sinful nature, but that doesn't contaminate the Holy Spirit.

The same is true of the Deity of Christ. By assuming our fallen life, indwelt with sin, this act did not make His Deity, sinful.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
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#53
The Holy Spirit resides in the believer. The believer is still sinful and has a sinful nature, but that doesn't contaminate the Holy Spirit.

The same is true of the Deity of Christ. By assuming our fallen life, indwelt with sin, this act did not make His Deity, sinful.
that is human reasoning the Bible does not show that. Sinful nature is sinful :) Jesus had none of that
 
Oct 3, 2015
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#54
Number 2 is false also because the Word of God shows in the OT there is a age of accountability, and until that age is reached sins will not be held against the individual because they do not yet understand right from wrong.

Also......

Ezekiel 18:20

The soul that sinneth , it shall die . The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him.


Ps 51:5 Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me.

Note, David did not say we are born guilty of transgression. Guilt involves volition. So you are right about the age of accountability.

So while we are not born guilty, we are born sinners. That's because we are born with the flesh and mind in harmony. See Eph 2:3

Christ was born spiritually alive, which simply means His mind was never in harmony with our nature that He assumed at the incarnation. Therefore He was not born a sinner as we are.
 
Oct 3, 2015
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#56
Sinful in what sense?

Let me answer my own question:

Psalm 51:5. David was “shapen in iniquity” from his very birth. This was his spiritual condition since physically he was handsome [1 Samuel 16:12]. The primary meaning of iniquity is not an act but a condition. As a result of the fall, man by very nature is spiritually “bent,” so that the driving force of his very nature is love of self. Paul defines it as “the law of sin and death” [Romans 7:23; 8:2]. It is this condition that is the basis of all our sinning, and which makes us slaves to sin [Romans 3:9-12; 7:14].
 
Oct 3, 2015
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#57
Sinful nature is sinful
Yes, it is sinful because it is the source of all our temptations within. As Romans 5:12-14 points out, the people between Adam and Moses (where the law was posted) weren't dying because they we guilty before the law. They were dying because they belonged to a condemned race due to indwelling sin.
 
Oct 3, 2015
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#58
Yes, it is sinful because it is the source of all our temptations within. As Romans 5:12-14 points out, the people between Adam and Moses (where the law was posted) weren't dying because they we guilty before the law. They were dying because they belonged to a condemned race due to indwelling sin.
By assuming our humanity, Christ as the son of man became condemned (mortal). That's how is was able to take the 2nd death (the curse of the law). As God He is immortal. Deity cannot die, it's impossible.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
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#59
Yes, it is sinful because it is the source of all our temptations within. As Romans 5:12-14 points out, the people between Adam and Moses (where the law was posted) weren't dying because they we guilty before the law. They were dying because they belonged to a condemned race due to indwelling sin.
Adam fall did not have anything to do with Moses :). we die because we are born in sin and shapen in iniquity That was not part of Jesus as fully man
 

NotmebutHim

Senior Member
May 17, 2015
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#60
I didn't know until recently that "immaculate conception" is considered by many to be a false doctrine. Previously, I had thought that IC referred to the birth of Jesus, not the birth of Mary.