Anyway, the point is this: at first it looked like this thread was about you wanting to know what everyone thought of Prosperty Theology, but it's getting more and more evident that you want this Property Theology to be true despite scripture to the contrary. There's no way we can share truth with you if you're determind not to listen.
In 2003 I went to the Urbana msisions conference at the University of Illinois. A guy** said that there was a time when the USA's biggest Christian export was the Prosperty Gospel and we will be judged accordingly. So what I'm saying is, believe whatever you want, just remember you have to justify what you believe to God.
*Like I said this is a real term. If you say you believe in Prosperty Theology but then you're definition differs from the mainstream, you're bound to confuse Christians who are already familiar with that term.
Let's do this - Prove this to be wrong.
The so-called "mainstream" belief of the Prosperity Theology is false. Yes, it is the "popular" definition. Yes, it is what most people know it by. However, this definition has been given by those who oppose to this view. Therefore, it is most likely to be bias and a distortion of what the Theology Prosperity really is. I have asked you this before, can you find me at least
one person who believes in the Prosperity Gospel is what the "mainstream" believe it to be? This should not be very hard for you, I am asking you to find me
just ONE.
If you can't find one, then you must understand that the "mainstream" or the so-called "official" definition of it is wrong.
Take the trinity doctrine for instance. The Christians (at least most of us) say that the trinity is the belief that God is one, but exist eternally in three distinct persona: God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit. Now the Muslims (opponent of the trinity doctrine) and lot of those who disagree with it say that the trinity doctrine teaches that Christians believe in three gods. Clearly, their definition of it is wrong. If you want to know what the trinity doctrine is, would you go to the opponents claims or the Christians?
NOTE: I am not comparing Christians with Muslim, I just wanted to perhaps show you how your definition of the theology prosperity is bias and wrong.
I've looked over this thread again and I've you've failed to comment on scripture that shows the Prosperty Gospel is not true. You just keep wanting to bring everything back to John 10 and 3 John 1 and Psalm 1. You're accusing others of ignoring scipture but when we show you other scripture you just seem to be ignoring it. Instead of taking a hard look at the scripture Roaring Kitten quoted for you, you just tell him that it's not relavent.
Some of these scriptures, I argued and show the bias in the interpretations. But most importantly, all of these scriptures were used to show how the "mainstream" view, which is the distortion of what the prosperity gospel is, is false. In reference to the "mainstream view" they are indeed relevant. However, in relation of what the Prosperity Gospel really is, they have nothing to do with it. So yes, I dismiss them as irrelevant.
The Baptistw quotes a whole bunch of good scripture for you and I can't find where you responded to that.
I thought I did, but I will go back to this thread and respond to them.
Then I asked you what Luke 9:58 means to you and if I'm not mistaken you haven't done that either.
And I will, but I need to stop dancing around and go into the scriptures I have given you and all others and tell me how they do not support the Theology Gospel in its proper definition.
I also asked you what research you've done on the Prosperty Gospel* and you didn't answer that question either.
I ignored that because that's none of your concern. This is a discussion, argue my points. Not my education or my research.
When we bring up scripture you just keep wanting to bring it back to John 10, Psalm 1 etc.
That's not quite accurate, I have been asking
you to respond to my posts 17 & 37. Other than that, I have given detailed explanations of the verses that have been given me. And notice, when I argue against the verses that are given to me... I don't jump over and quote another verse because that's bad exegesis and not a productive way to conduct a discussion. You must first explain the scripture itself in its content and find out what it means. Most of verses that have been given to me were bias-ly interpreted. That is, they take only part of the passage and leave out the rest. I have given you and roarinkitten Psalms 1 and neither one of you have tried to go into the text and show how it does not mean what I understand it to mean. Why is that?
You said something about me not providing information from other scholars who agree with my understanding of Psalms 1. Truthfully, I did not look this up until you asked me to. Even though there are some, I do not believe I need them to backup my claim because whether or not they agree with me does not make it true. It simply means that Dr. so and so agrees with Rosinsky. This means nothing. Furthermore, if I gave you names of scholars and commentators who agrees with me, would you then profess that you agree? I might be wrong, but I believe the answer to be no. Then what is the point?