maybe that's where we are reading it differently. Jesus speaks to the disciples as representatives of later followers.
Read
what 'differently? I'm reading the Olivet Disocurse. What scripture are you reading that indicates Jesus wasn't speaking to Peter, James and John? Quite clearly there is zero scripture for such a claim. (?) That's something you just made up. Why would you do that?
Do you believe Peter walked out of the Olivet Discourse, saying:
"Jesus just looked me in the eye and said to be prepared for the Abomination of Desolation...but He wasn't really talking to me. He was talking to others that I represent...even though He addressed me as though His words applied to me."
That didn't happen. How would he have derived
that conclusion?
And if you were to claim Peter was under a
'mistaken' impression that the Olivet Discourse applied to him
...then you're back to the problem of Jesus giving Peter, James and John information that was not correct for them. He was handing them erroneous information...false information...false doctrine.
And again, the problem would be horrendously compounded by the simple fact that Peter, James and John would have then "mistakenly"
passed along this erroneous information.
So their students would then have ALSO have been under an INCORRECT impression...would ALSO have received false teaching..,.and would then THEMSELVES go on to teach false doctrine.
I would say you're not thinking this through very well.
Well, no. Pretty clear, only Peter, James, John and Andrew were present. Mark 13.