If someone knows English, but it is not their mother tongue should they still read KJV over their native language bible?
Yet another good question.
I do not read, speak, or understand 1611 King James English very well at all. The KJV ONLY PEOPLE ALREADY CHANGED THE 1611 KJV, and even it is hard to understand at times. But I have no problem understanding modern Translations.
FOR EXAMPLE Psalm 25:5:
Psalm 25:5 (KJV)
[SUP]5 [/SUP] Lead me in thy truth, and teach me: for thou art the God of my salvation; on thee do I wait all the day.
They had to update the English Language to the terms and spellings we use today. Even the 1611 Original Preface admitted they did not set out to make a new Translation, but rather to improve on older English Versions, which makes it a PARPHRASE, not a legitimate Translation. YET, when someone else improves the language, by actually going back to the original language manuscripts and actually TRANSLATING IT LITERALLY, they in hypocracy scream that Translation is of the Devil. AMAZING!
The best example I can give you of a modern KJV verse that is extremely hard to understand in that KJV of today is this verse, and I will post a modern TRANSLATION for Comparison:
2 Thessalonians 2:7 (KJV)
[SUP]7 [/SUP] For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.
And most people today will read that and say, "HUH? ? ?"
2 Thessalonians 2:7 (HCSB)
[SUP]7 [/SUP] For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work, but the one now restraining will do so until he is out of the way,
Much easier to understand.
I have been accused of reading a Translation that was made in sin, and even told that the Translation I was using was made by the Devil.
IF THE 1611 KJV cannot be updated, WHY DID THEY CHANGE THE SPELLING to fit Modern English? ? ? Try to read verse 7 in Chapter 25 in that 1611 KJV.