Was Jesus the first man?

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Jan 15, 2021
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#61
That has certainly been true for the last 2,000 years or so (since His "Incarnation"/since He 'took on' flesh for our sakes), but that was not true of Him prior to His Incarnation.

~Deut

Hebrews 2
14 Since all of these sons and daughters have flesh and blood, Jesus took on flesh and blood to be like them. He did this so that by dying He would destroy the one who had power over death (that is, the devil).
Okay so Jesus isn't by definition fully human and fully divine.
 

NotmebutHim

Senior Member
May 17, 2015
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#62
The first two chapters of 1 Corinthians are a good starting point......... (y)
 
Oct 19, 2020
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#65
When was Jesus born?
The WORD is God in a Spirit Heavenly body.
The WORD is God who Created everything.
The Word is God who became flesh.

The Word has existed for ever. There is no Beginning, there is only God. But to die for our sins, the WORD became Jesus. The WORD has existed forever, but playing the role of Jesus, the WORD was born as a human being. While being Jesus, He still was the WORD, He still was God.
 

ewq1938

Well-known member
Oct 18, 2018
4,809
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#66
The Word and Jesus are the same person?
Yes. One was a name he was called before incarnating as a human, the other was a new name after the incarnation. An angel told his mother what name to give him:

Mat 1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
 

Tararose

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Sep 30, 2020
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#67
Since I would never deny the trinity, and the Son is a fundament of the Three, would that mean Jesus has surely always existed?
The title may not be the same as the question you are asking... the title appears to be a loaded question. I am not saying your intention is to create an endless debate, but it is a bit of a futile one. I dont know what to answer, the title or the question but I will have a go.

Jesus always existed, but He became the second "Adam" when he was born of a woman, though unlike the first "Adam" He never sinned of course.

Just like in a sense Adam existed as dirt and the breath of God, before God formed that dirt into a physical man and gave it His spirit ... Jesus existed as God for all time before and after He lived inside a flesh body.

Jesus wasnt always a man, anymore than God was always a burning bush or a pillar of fire leading His people through the desert, or whatever else He has manifested Himself within in some form a human can cope with. He may have appeared to speak from or inhabit some sort of physical form in various ways throughout the bible, but He isnt and never could be limited to those forms.

To say just because God used one form or other, that He is like a beast or a part of creation that is limited to thier chosen form, is to demote God fully from creator to creation.

To try to fully understand the nature and full aspect of the Godhead, who is and always has been one, is quite like a baby attempting to understand or explain neuroscience or nuclear physics. We just can't.

If we use common sense then we go by what is written that is simply understood.

We know when Jesus became a man, it is documented in scripture.
We know Adam was formed out of the dust at the hand of God who made adam and eve in HIS image (Let us make man in OUR image) and yet God is spirit as the scriptures clearly show. All this is not hard to find and is as clear as day in scripture.

We know clearly that when God took the physical form of flesh (Not just the appearance of it) once and only once in all of documented bible history, it is documented in scriptured that is when He became a self-declared SON OF MAN.

His earthly physical lineage - ie someof the dna that formed the blood and bone etc - can be found, through his mothers line - which is documented in scripture. People debate if Marys genetics were involved at all.... we dont need to know that really, he was human who could cry, bleed, and die and that is what mattered.

He was always God and always will be God, but He was became the son of man for a short period of time to fulfil a purpose, and then he became the "first born of many brethren". He is called the second adam for a reason.

If you dont believe Adam was a man before Christ was a man, that wont send you to hell, as long as you know Christ is the son of the one true living God and that He died for your sins.
 
Jan 15, 2021
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#68
The title may not be the same as the question you are asking... the title appears to be a loaded question. I am not saying your intention is to create an endless debate, but it is a bit of a futile one. I dont know what to answer, the title or the question but I will have a go.

Jesus always existed, but He became the second "Adam" when he was born of a woman, though unlike the first "Adam" He never sinned of course.

Just like in a sense Adam existed as dirt and the breath of God, before God formed that dirt into a physical man and gave it His spirit ... Jesus existed as God for all time before and after He lived inside a flesh body.

Jesus wasnt always a man, anymore than God was always a burning bush or a pillar of fire leading His people through the desert, or whatever else He has manifested Himself within in some form a human can cope with. He may have appeared to speak from or inhabit some sort of physical form in various ways throughout the bible, but He isnt and never could be limited to those forms.

To say just because God used one form or other, that He is like a beast or a part of creation that is limited to thier chosen form, is to demote God fully from creator to creation.

To try to fully understand the nature and full aspect of the Godhead, who is and always has been one, is quite like a baby attempting to understand or explain neuroscience or nuclear physics. We just can't.

If we use common sense then we go by what is written that is simply understood.

We know when Jesus became a man, it is documented in scripture.
We know Adam was formed out of the dust at the hand of God who made adam and eve in HIS image (Let us make man in OUR image) and yet God is spirit as the scriptures clearly show. All this is not hard to find and is as clear as day in scripture.

We know clearly that when God took the physical form of flesh (Not just the appearance of it) once and only once in all of documented bible history, it is documented in scriptured that is when He became a self-declared SON OF MAN.

His earthly physical lineage - ie someof the dna that formed the blood and bone etc - can be found, through his mothers line - which is documented in scripture. People debate if Marys genetics were involved at all.... we dont need to know that really, he was human who could cry, bleed, and die and that is what mattered.

He was always God and always will be God, but He was became the son of man for a short period of time to fulfil a purpose, and then he became the "first born of many brethren". He is called the second adam for a reason.

If you dont believe Adam was a man before Christ was a man, that wont send you to hell, as long as you know Christ is the son of the one true living God and that He died for your sins.
1. Jesus is FHaFD and has always existed, and thus was the first man.

2. Jesus is not FHaFD and has always existed, and thus was not the first man.

3. Jesus is FHaFD and has not always existed, and thus was not the first man.
 

Tararose

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#69
That's your own presumption.
There was nothing presumptious about it, the chapter John 1 goes on to make it very clear the WORD of God is Christ. If you cannot accept that then I dont know that you can believe anything in scripture.


And zthe Word abecame flesh and bdwelt among us, cand we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son4 from the Father, full of dgrace and etruth. 15 (fJohn bore witness about him, and cried out, “This was he of whom I said, g‘He who comes after me ranks before me, because he was before me.’ ”)

shortly followed by this incase you are still in doubt this WORD is christ that John testifies of.....

29 The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold, xthe Lamb of God, who ytakes away the sin zof the world! 30 This is he of whom I said, a‘After me comes a man who ranks before me, because he was before me.’
 
Jan 15, 2021
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#70
Yes. One was a name he was called before incarnating as a human, the other was a new name after the incarnation. An angel told his mother what name to give him:

Mat 1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
Wasn't Jesus supposed to named Immanuel? And since the Logos and Jesus are the same person, is the Logos human?
 

ewq1938

Well-known member
Oct 18, 2018
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#71
1. Jesus is FHaFD and has always existed, and thus was the first man.

2. Jesus is not FHaFD and has always existed, and thus was not the first man.

3. Jesus is FHaFD and has not always existed, and thus was not the first man.
None of these are correct plus FD should be FG (fully God)

The Word was fully God.
The Word became incarnated so was fully human and fully God (FHaFG) and was given a new name of Jesus.
Jesus died and was resurrected and his flesh changed to immortal so he is now fully God again. He is not human any longer but his body looks similar to his former human body with even the scars being still visible.
 

ewq1938

Well-known member
Oct 18, 2018
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#72
Wasn't Jesus supposed to named Immanuel?
He has many names and that is another new name he was given when he was incarnated.

And since the Logos and Jesus are the same person, is the Logos human?
The Logos/Word was originally not human but became human through the incarnation. That's how "God with us" started and was when he was first given the name of Jesus.
 
Jan 15, 2021
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#73
He has many names and that is another new name he was given when he was incarnated.



The Logos/Word was originally not human but became human through the incarnation. That's how "God with us" started and was when he was first given the name of Jesus.
Who referred to him as Immanuel? Why was he referred to as Jesus? Why do WE refer to 'Jesus', a human, and not GOD?
 

ewq1938

Well-known member
Oct 18, 2018
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#74
Who referred to him as Immanuel?
Isa_7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

Mat_1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.



Why was he referred to as Jesus?
Because that is one of his new names and would become the most common.



Why do WE refer to 'Jesus', a human, and not GOD?
"we" who? Jesus was incarnated and was human and God, known as God the Son the second person of the Trinity.
 

Tararose

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#75
1. Jesus is FHaFD and has always existed, and thus was the first man.

2. Jesus is not FHaFD and has always existed, and thus was not the first man.

3. Jesus is FHaFD and has not always existed, and thus was not the first man.

You clearly did not care to read anything I wrote, I dont think the defintion of God is something we can just throw out our lip about and take lightly. People, believers, children of God are trying to assist you and you are being quite disrespectful when they have taken time to explain the best way they can.

One last attempt from me, if you dont want to show respect in engaging in proper conversation and responding to what people take the time to write, then it is a waste of time.

Underlines and bold below is for emphasis = not shouting - just to clarify.

If Jesus IS NOW FH & FD - or WAS WHILST WALKING THE EARTH as the SON OF MAN - that does not mean HE WAS FH since time began!

He was the FIRST BORN OF GOD, But not the FIRST HUMAN on Earth, why is that so hard to comprehend.

The SPIRIT OF GOD impregnated MARY, thus creating the man Jesus.
Jesus was a created being there, But always exited as God before that point.

Christ, not adam, was FIRSTBORN of many spiritual brethren, not fleshly ones. Jesus was the SECOND ADAM not the first, he came after adam by definition, He was not the PRE-ADAM man.
Not sure how that can be misunderstood.

Whatever form the ressurected body of Christ is at present, The WORD OF GOD WAS NOT ALWAYS JESUS.
thus He was not always a human. Jesus was not a flesh and blood man before adam was.
He WAS ALWAYS GOD, who for a time WAS ALSO FULLY HUMAN.

OKAY if this still isnt making sense, do us all a favour and please share your clear understanding of fully HUMAN?

Are we talking flesh and blood in the form of a man or woman in a body that will one day die? Because none of us are flesh and blood once we die.
Flesh and blood are for an earthly season only.

So If we are not talking flesh and blood then what are you referring to?

If you mean flesh and blood, Jesus Christ did not exist as a human form, in human flesh, until the miraculous impregnation.

ONLY when the foretold event finally occured did the word of God take on flesh, then Christ was in human fleshly FORM.

Prior to that - NO - the word of God was not remotely human, nevermind fully human. Jesus was not just a name, it was His entire purpose whilst in the form of man on earth. He did not aquire that name until He was born of a woman.

What is Christ now, He is not dwelling in a body of flesh - for flesh is corruptable and not eternal. He still carrys His name, Jesus. Because that is what He did on Earth, "Jesus" isnt just his name, it is fact. He is still the word of God who WAS made manifest in Flesh.

So you define human - this FULLY HUMAN you ask about - and that way people might be able to assist you further with this query.

Otherwise - what more can anyone say to someone demanding we chose to sum up the Almighty Trinity in one of the three defintions they have offered us. We have all tried to explain the obvious flaw in the question, He wasnt Jesus until He was born in a human body.
 

NotmebutHim

Senior Member
May 17, 2015
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#76
According to Matthew, an angel appeared to Joseph (while he was thinking about how to privately "put away" Mary) and told him that they (meaning him and Mary) were to name the Child "Jesus" (Hebrew "Yeshua"), for "He shall save His people from their sins".

That's why Jesus (or Yeshua) is one of His names. :cool:
 

Tararose

Well-known member
Sep 30, 2020
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#77
I have read John Chapter 1...it doesn't mention Jesus.
Sorry but it clearly does.

John 1
14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth. 15 (John bore witness about him, and cried out, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me ranks before me, because he was before me.’ ”)

.....The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world! 30 This is he of whom I said, ‘After me comes a man who ranks before me, because he was before me.’ 31 I myself did not know him, but for this purpose I came baptizing with water, that he might be revealed to Israel.” 32 And John bore witness
 

Tararose

Well-known member
Sep 30, 2020
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#78
Okay, so he wasn't born in Bethlehem in the first century AD?
He was born when He was prophesised to be, we know the year roughly, but it is fairly unlikely it was christmas day, no indication of that in scripture, I think that is the reason it is the million dollar question :)
 
Jan 15, 2021
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81
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#79
You clearly did not care to read anything I wrote, I dont think the defintion of God is something we can just throw out our lip about and take lightly. People, believers, children of God are trying to assist you and you are being quite disrespectful when they have taken time to explain the best way they can.

One last attempt from me, if you dont want to show respect in engaging in proper conversation and responding to what people take the time to write, then it is a waste of time.

Underlines and bold below is for emphasis = not shouting - just to clarify.

If Jesus IS NOW FH & FD - or WAS WHILST WALKING THE EARTH as the SON OF MAN - that does not mean HE WAS FH since time began!

He was the FIRST BORN OF GOD, But not the FIRST HUMAN on Earth, why is that so hard to comprehend.

The SPIRIT OF GOD impregnated MARY, thus creating the man Jesus.
Jesus was a created being there, But always exited as God before that point.

Christ, not adam, was FIRSTBORN of many spiritual brethren, not fleshly ones. Jesus was the SECOND ADAM not the first, he came after adam by definition, He was not the PRE-ADAM man.
Not sure how that can be misunderstood.

Whatever form the ressurected body of Christ is at present, The WORD OF GOD WAS NOT ALWAYS JESUS.
thus He was not always a human. Jesus was not a flesh and blood man before adam was.
He WAS ALWAYS GOD, who for a time WAS ALSO FULLY HUMAN.

OKAY if this still isnt making sense, do us all a favour and please share your clear understanding of fully HUMAN?

Are we talking flesh and blood in the form of a man or woman in a body that will one day die? Because none of us are flesh and blood once we die.
Flesh and blood are for an earthly season only.

So If we are not talking flesh and blood then what are you referring to?

If you mean flesh and blood, Jesus Christ did not exist as a human form, in human flesh, until the miraculous impregnation.

ONLY when the foretold event finally occured did the word of God take on flesh, then Christ was in human fleshly FORM.

Prior to that - NO - the word of God was not remotely human, nevermind fully human. Jesus was not just a name, it was His entire purpose whilst in the form of man on earth. He did not aquire that name until He was born of a woman.

What is Christ now, He is not dwelling in a body of flesh - for flesh is corruptable and not eternal. He still carrys His name, Jesus. Because that is what He did on Earth, "Jesus" isnt just his name, it is fact. He is still the word of God who WAS made manifest in Flesh.

So you define human - this FULLY HUMAN you ask about - and that way people might be able to assist you further with this query.

Otherwise - what more can anyone say to someone demanding we chose to sum up the Almighty Trinity in one of the three defintions they have offered us. We have all tried to explain the obvious flaw in the question, He wasnt Jesus until He was born in a human
My understanding was that by definition Jesus is FHaFD. A is A. If Jesus ceased to be FH or FD 'he' would cease to be Jesus. For 'the word', see Logos. For the creator of all, see God. For the fully divine, fully human being whom died on the cross to save humanity, see Jesus.

Remove the divinity of Jesus and you have a Nazarite preacher. Remove Jesus' humanity and you have God. Otherwise, why refer to Jesus at all, if one isn't referring to the human being and is simply referring to God?

You appear to be conflating God/Christ/Jesus/Logos. Different words have different meanings.

As Trinitarians say 'The Holy Spirit is not the Son is not the Father'. It should go without saying that I completely believe in the Trinity.

As for Jesus existing before his physical conception, not only does that not make sense, but there is no scriptural basis for it. Did God exist? Yes. Did Jesus? Jesus is by definition human, and Genesis makes it clear that the first man was Adam.

If Jesus was the first born of God, by how long did God predate Jesus?

This may not be necessarily directed at you but for a forum that doesn't tolerate anything contradicting trinitarianism compartmentalisation seems to be a problem.

Is this making sense to you?
 
Jan 15, 2021
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#80
Sorry but it clearly does.

John 1
14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth. 15 (John bore witness about him, and cried out, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me ranks before me, because he was before me.’ ”)

.....The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world! 30 This is he of whom I said, ‘After me comes a man who ranks before me, because he was before me.’ 31 I myself did not know him, but for this purpose I came baptizing with water, that he might be revealed to Israel.” 32 And John bore witness
You are correct. My mistake.