The word "knows" (in these passages) is "PERFECT INDICATIVE"...
and the
"PERFECT tense" means: "ACTION COMPLETED at a SPECIFIC POINT of TIME in PAST [
.] with results CONTINUING into the PRESENT [
.-->].
In certain contexts the results are PERMANENT."
However, not in
ALL "contexts"... SOMETIMES
that can CHANGE by the introduction of FURTHER INFORMATION which CHANGES that status!
And this is what I believe occurred FOLLOWING His "ascension," when Jesus AGAIN had perfect knowledge with the Father
(and God
GAVE UNTO HIM TO SHOW UNTO His servants...
this "further information" ...in the LATER writing of the Revelation [in 95ad setting, well after His ascension--which also agrees with the SEQUENCE issue being shown between Matt22:
7's "70ad events" and Matt22:
8's "
THEN SAITH HE to his servants," which
necessarily takes place
FOLLOWING the 70ad events, and which fits the
Rev1:1[7:3] text perfectly]).
In John 17:5 (just before He would go to the Cross), Jesus says,
Berean Study Bible
And now, Father, glorify Me in Your presence with the glory I had with You before the world existed.
Berean Literal Bible
And now glorify Me, You Father, with Yourself, with the glory that I had with You before the world existed.
King James Bible
And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
Again, the text is not conveying that "no one
WILL EVER know" nor "
CAN EVER know"... (it pertained to "
knows [perfect indicative]" [at the time spoken]... and the question then would become, is this a "PERMANENT" thing, or did LATER "further information" which was DISCLOSED in Scripture CHANGE that status? I say,
yes, this is what Scripture indicates... per "[The] Revelation"... [which covers that very Subject])