What does this mean: "I have said, Ye are gods..."

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J

jaybird88

Guest
You just said, "divine council-no men there. Fine, then tell me who are the people this so-called divine council (who are not men according to you) that are judging at Psalm 82:2-5? Are then men or somebody else? :eek:

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
they are the sons of the Most High from the Dt passage a gave you earlier. when the Most High divided the nations. He divided the nations at Babel. they rebelled, he gave them over to the host of heaven. the Lord took Israel for His portion. there are several passages to support this

Deuteronomy 29:26-28

26 and went and served other gods and worshiped them, gods whom they had not known and whom he had not allotted to them.

however there are none to support the Most High divided the nations among men. it doesnt even make sense, the Holy Father . . . . . . and men? got together and divided the nations of men among them?
 

MarcR

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2015
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I was reminded of the angels who came and ministered to our Lord.

In speaking of the angels he says, "He makes his angels spirits, and his servants flames of fire."
The Hebrew language was originally written without vowel markings and Torah Scrolls are still written that way.

However Hebrew was written with cantillation marks before the time of David and possibly much earlier; so the Hebrew scriptures were the world's first sheet music.
 
J

jaybird88

Guest
What Scripture are you talking about?
any scripture that teaches the Almighty divided the nations among men.
i have already provided a scripture they were divided among the sons of the Most High. if i am wrong provide a scripture.
 
J

jaybird88

Guest
No no no, you are doing it all wrong.
You are perverting the meaning by interpreting each and every word.
You have to check the preceding and following verses to get a general idea of what the verse is talking about.
And then you will have an accurate understand of what the verse is saying.
Or so I am told when it comes to interpreting scripture that proves the others wrong.
I haven't seen that nonsensical argument on this subject, so I thought I would just throw that in.
Good post sir, I enjoy the Hebrew lessons.
know what are your thoughts on the psalm? men or heavenly beings?
 
J

jaybird88

Guest
The Hebrew language was originally written without vowel markings and Torah Scrolls are still written that way.

However Hebrew was written with cantillation marks before the time of David and possibly much earlier; so the Hebrew scriptures were the world's first sheet music.
i would love to have a better understanding of the old Hebrew, i never liked depending on the translates and lexicon tools.
i like the DSS but still, you have to use english translators.
 

bluto

Senior Member
Aug 4, 2016
2,103
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they are the sons of the Most High from the Dt passage a gave you earlier. when the Most High divided the nations. He divided the nations at Babel. they rebelled, he gave them over to the host of heaven. the Lord took Israel for His portion. there are several passages to support this

Deuteronomy 29:26-28

26 and went and served other gods and worshiped them, gods whom they had not known and whom he had not allotted to them.

however there are none to support the Most High divided the nations among men. it doesnt even make sense, the Holy Father . . . . . . and men? got together and divided the nations of men among them?
Who in the world told you that Deuteronmy 32:8,9 and Deuteronmy 29:26-28 has anything to do with Psalm 82? How did you arrive at that conlusion that the Deuteronmy text and the Psalm 82 text are each cross references to each other? And btw, I already checked with Scholars/experts on these text and the text have "NOTHING" in common with Psalm 82. I think what your doing is that you see a word or phrase like "the sons of God" and you think it means the same thing all throughout the Bible. Is that how you exegete Scripture? :eek:

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
 

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
Nov 24, 2013
10,665
1,829
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they are the sons of the Most High from the Dt passage a gave you earlier. when the Most High divided the nations. He divided the nations at Babel. they rebelled, he gave them over to the host of heaven. the Lord took Israel for His portion. there are several passages to support this

Deuteronomy 29:26-28

26 and went and served other gods and worshiped them, gods whom they had not known and whom he had not allotted to them.

however there are none to support the Most High divided the nations among men. it doesnt even make sense, the Holy Father . . . . . . and men? got together and divided the nations of men among them?

Here is The Complete Jewish Bible Hebrew to English (Have no idea who's right)

82 1( 0) A psalm of Asaf: (1) Elohim [God] stands in the divine assembly; there with the elohim [judges], he judges:

2 “How long will you go on judging unfairly, favoring the wicked? (Selah)

3 Give justice to the weak and fatherless! Uphold the rights of the wretched and poor!

4 Rescue the destitute and needy; deliver them from the power of the wicked!”

5 They don’t know, they don’t understand, they wander about in darkness; meanwhile, all the foundations of the earth are being undermined.

6 “My decree is: ‘You are elohim [gods, judges], sons of the Most High all of you.

7 Nevertheless, you will die like mortals; like any prince, you will fall.’”

8 Rise up, Elohim, and judge the earth; for all the nations are yours. 83 1( 0) A song. A psalm of Asaf:
 

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
Nov 24, 2013
10,665
1,829
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Who in the world told you that Deuteronmy 32:8,9 and Deuteronmy 29:26-28 has anything to do with Psalm 82? How did you arrive at that conlusion that the Deuteronmy text and the Psalm 82 text are each cross references to each other? And btw, I already checked with Scholars/experts on these text and the text have "NOTHING" in common with Psalm 82. I think what your doing is that you see a word or phrase like "the sons of God" and you think it means the same thing all throughout the Bible. Is that how you exegete Scripture? :eek:

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
In verse 26 the word is gods in Hebrew to English. Idols of Deut 29.
 

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
Nov 24, 2013
10,665
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Maybe we all would be in unity if we all used the Hebrew to English bible?

Possible?
 
J

jaybird88

Guest
Who in the world told you that Deuteronmy 32:8,9 and Deuteronmy 29:26-28 has anything to do with Psalm 82? How did you arrive at that conlusion that the Deuteronmy text and the Psalm 82 text are each cross references to each other? And btw, I already checked with Scholars/experts on these text and the text have "NOTHING" in common with Psalm 82. I think what your doing is that you see a word or phrase like "the sons of God" and you think it means the same thing all throughout the Bible. Is that how you exegete Scripture? :eek:

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
the scriptures speak for themselves.
Dt 32 - the nations are divided among sons of the Most High
Dt 29 - a reference of this division
Ps 82 - the Sons of the Most High being Judged for doing a bad job.

you have a better explanation? 3rd time now i have asked.
 
J

jaybird88

Guest
Here is The Complete Jewish Bible Hebrew to English (Have no idea who's right)

82 1( 0) A psalm of Asaf: (1) Elohim [God] stands in the divine assembly; there with the elohim [judges], he judges:

2 “How long will you go on judging unfairly, favoring the wicked? (Selah)

3 Give justice to the weak and fatherless! Uphold the rights of the wretched and poor!

4 Rescue the destitute and needy; deliver them from the power of the wicked!”

5 They don’t know, they don’t understand, they wander about in darkness; meanwhile, all the foundations of the earth are being undermined.

6 “My decree is: ‘You are elohim [gods, judges], sons of the Most High all of you.

7 Nevertheless, you will die like mortals; like any prince, you will fall.’”

8 Rise up, Elohim, and judge the earth; for all the nations are yours. 83 1( 0) A song. A psalm of Asaf:
so what do you make of the passage stone? or do you not want to get involved? lol im starting to wish i never got involved.
 
Jan 6, 2018
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any scripture that teaches the Almighty divided the nations among men.
i have already provided a scripture they were divided among the sons of the Most High. if i am wrong provide a scripture.
You didn't provide any Scripture supporting that you are right.
 
J

jaybird88

Guest
You didn't provide any Scripture supporting that you are right.
it was back on post 361

Deuteronomy 32 8-9
8 When the Most High gave to the nations their inheritance,
when he divided mankind,
he fixed the borders of the peoples
according to the number of the sons of God.
9 But the Lord's portion is his people,
Jacob his allotted heritage.

the nations were divided among the sons of the Most High, to those nations they were gods, but they were not the Most High.
 
J

jaybird88

Guest
You didn't provide any Scripture supporting that you are right.
and this one

Deuteronomy 29:26-28

26 and went and served other gods and worshiped them, gods whom they had not known and whom he had not allotted to them.
and i have yet to see a passage that says the nations were divided among men.
 

know1

Senior Member
Aug 27, 2012
3,100
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know what are your thoughts on the psalm? men or heavenly beings?
If I were to comment on that, it would only be speculation or a somewhat half educated guess.
I don't know what side of the argument you are on as I haven't been following the dialog, but from what I see from just reading it, there were no sons of God living on earth until Jesus rose from the dead and men received the new birth, so I would say they were heavenly beings.
As far as I know, the Jews were never referred to as sons or children of God but servants of the Most High God.
The only child they were of, was Abraham, but that was only to them who believed as Abraham did.
Before we came along, the only son's of God written were in Genesis and Job. They were not earthly men, from what I see.
One thing I found interesting is that satan always showed up when the sons of God came to present themselves, suggesting that he was at one time or still is a son of God.
So that is what I think the verse is saying with my extremely limited knowledge of it.
 

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
Nov 24, 2013
10,665
1,829
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so what do you make of the passage stone? or do you not want to get involved? lol im starting to wish i never got involved.
I understand. :)

Just an opinion. To me, God gives power to rule to men. This doesn't make men Elohim, capital E, or deity, but authority to make judgements what is right or wrong among men. It's the same thing with the body of Christ. We have authority to act in the power of Holy Spirit in the place of Jesus. Under unction though, not outside the Head.

But, in both instances, God Himself judged the judges , and Jesus is head of His body. Men under authority, yet given authority.

Might make sense just to me. Lol

and my dog needs me again. Poor baby..later.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
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the scriptures speak for themselves.
Dt 32 - the nations are divided among sons of the Most High
Dt 29 - a reference of this division
Ps 82 - the Sons of the Most High being Judged for doing a bad job.

you have a better explanation? 3rd time now i have asked.
The Scriptures speak for themselves provided Christians rightly divide (interpret) the Word of Truth. Bluto is correct in that you are taking random Scriptures and coming up with a fanciful interpretation. Read and study the OP carefully and believe it.
 
J

jaybird88

Guest
If I were to comment on that, it would only be speculation or a somewhat half educated guess.
I don't know what side of the argument you are on as I haven't been following the dialog, but from what I see from just reading it, there were no sons of God living on earth until Jesus rose from the dead and men received the new birth, so I would say they were heavenly beings.
As far as I know, the Jews were never referred to as sons or children of God but servants of the Most High God.
The only child they were of, was Abraham, but that was only to them who believed as Abraham did.
Before we came along, the only son's of God written were in Genesis and Job. They were not earthly men, from what I see.
One thing I found interesting is that satan always showed up when the sons of God came to present themselves, suggesting that he was at one time or still is a son of God.
So that is what I think the verse is saying with my extremely limited knowledge of it.
my view is they were heavenly beings.
when Noah and his family re populated the earth the nations were under the Most High, something happened, they rebelled at babel, and all nations were divided and given over to these heavenly beings, all nations because there was no Israel at the time, after babel what happens, the very next chapter is the calling of Abram, the Lords portion.
and like you, this is just my opinion, i am not the final authority on such things, but to me this view is the most logical one.
 
J

jaybird88

Guest
The Scriptures speak for themselves provided Christians rightly divide (interpret) the Word of Truth. Bluto is correct in that you are taking random Scriptures and coming up with a fanciful interpretation. Read and study the OP carefully and believe it.
actually they are not random, had you chose to read you would have seen the connections i made. i think we both know that no matter what scripture i provide you will say its random and have nothing to do with anything, and how could it, it conflicts with the man made doctrine. bible speaks of other gods, man says other gods dont exist, who do we believe? i chose the bible.

Deuteronomy 29:26-28
26 and went and served other gods and worshiped them, gods whom they had not known and whom he had not allotted to them.