The "Sign Gifts" ended because they were given to the Apostles by Jesus Christ in the Great Comission of Mark 16:14-16......
The Bible does not use the term 'sign gifts.'
"Afterward he appeared unto the ELEVEN as they sat at meat, and upbraided them with their unbelief and hardness of heart, because they believed not them which had seen him after he was risen. 15And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature. 16He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned. 17And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues; 18They shall take up serpents; and if they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them; they shall lay hands on the sick, and they shall recover. "
Look at the passage. The apostles preach the message, then them that believe do the signs. The apostles preach. Others believe and are baptized. Them that believe do signs. Where do you get that the apostles only do signs? That's not what the verses say.
Only the ELEVEN Apostles plus Paul had the Sign Gifts as they were the only Apostles. When they died the Sign Gifts ended.
I would encourage you to read through the relevant passages of scripture on the issue. It seems to me that you have not studied. Acts 14:4 and 14 indicate that Barnabas was also an apostle, for example. He and Paul told of the miracles they performed among the Gentiles in Acts 15. Prior to that in Acts, Stephen and Philip worked miracles also. I Corinthians 12 lists a number of supernatural gifts that are given to members of the body of Christ as the Spirit wills. This is inconsistent with your statement above. Also, read in Acts 2 about the Spirit being poured out on all flesh, including young men, old men, handmaidens, etc.
1 Corth. 13:8-9 is your confirmation where we see..........
"Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away. 9For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. 10But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away. "
You should read the rest of the passage:
1 When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things.
12 For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known.
The coming of the perfect is going to make Paul's speech, understanding, and thoughts back when he was writing scripture seem like a child's by comparison to what comes after. To argue that he is speaking of the scriptures does not make sense. It also puts the one who makes the assertion in a superior position to Paul in terms of their understanding.
By reading scripture, we can hope to attain to apostolic understanding, but not so far exceed them that they are like babes in comparison to us.
Ephesians 3:4
Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ)
And I Corinthians 13 needs to be interpreted in line with the rest of the epistle.
I Corinthians 1
5 That in every thing ye are enriched by him, in all utterance, and in all knowledge;
6 Even as the testimony of Christ was confirmed in you:
7 So that ye come behind in no gift; waiting for the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ:
If Paul did not anticipate coming behind in spiritual gifts while waiting for the Lord's return, why should we? Also, Paul continues the epistle after chapter 13, and in chapter 15 he describes the state of the believer in the resurrection at the return of Christ, and the end, telos, when Christ delivers up the kingdom to God.
The "PERFECT" in the original Greek is "Teleion" which means COMPLETE. IMHO is the completed Written Word of God.
IT can not mean Jesus Christ as He has always been perfect and did not become complete as He always was.
If you insist that to teleion refers to a physical object or being, a substantive thing, you would have to prove that assertion. Perfection is coming in the future.
IT can not mean the 2nd Coming of Christ at the Rapture as there will be millions left behind who will get saved.
How is this an argument for anything? There were lots of people who did not get saved when the last book of the Bible was written.
IT can not be heaven as 13:10 says the Perfect is come. Heaven does not come to us....we go to it.
This seems to me to be a hyperliteral understanding of 'that' in 'that which is perfect'. The whole phrase translates an article and a word in Greek. The perfect is coming. Your arguments here seem to be based on a naive understanding of semantics.
By simple eliminatiion IMO we can see that the only perfect thing left that has come is the "Completed" Word of God.
Because there are only four concepts in the universe? Some theologians, include cessationists, think 'to teleion' refers to 'the eternal state.' My inclination is that it refers either to the state of things (possibly individuals) at the resurrection/rapture event, or else when Christ delivers the kingdom up to God.
A verse that comes to mind is from I John where it says it does not appear what we shall be for we shall be like Him, for we shall see Him as He is.
Some time later, I read John Calvin's commentary on this chapter. He is not known for being a Charismatic. He was a language and literature scholar. He quoted the same verse from I John I had in mind. He took the passage to refer to what happened either at death or the resurrection, and wrote that interpretations that argued that the perfect had come in 'the intervening time' were stupid... stupid or foolish depending on your translation. This was from a Greek scholar who certainly had a strong opinion of the authority of scripture.