I wasn't trying to prove the inerrancy of the KJV. I'm trying to understand how the word is preserved in the copies as you said. I would like to know if God said he preserved his word or "him".
Hi,
Here's how the Bible usage for the word "preserved" that is His Word not "him". It is the God's word that are keep, endures, shall not pass away, cannot be broken, the basis of God's judgement in the last day, more sure word, and is incorruptible. That's what the Word of God as evidence in the following passages of below scriptures.
Psa. 12:6, 7 The
WORDS of the LORD . . . Thou shalt
KEEP them, O LORD, thou shalt
PRESERVE them from this generation
FOR EVER.
Psa 100:5 For the LORD
is good . . . and
HIS TRUTH ENDURETH to all generations.
Ps 119:160 . . . every one of thy righteous
judgments ENDURETH FOR EVER
Matt. 24:35 Heaven and earth shall pass away, but
MY WORDS SHALL NOT PASS AWAY. (Matt. 5:18)
John 10:35 . . . unto whom the word of God came, and the
SCRIPTURE CANNOT BE BROKEN;
Joh 12:48 He that rejecteth me, and
RECEIVETH NOT MY WORDS, hath one that judgeth him:
THE WORD that I have spoken, the same
SHALL JUDGE HIM in the last day.
1Pe 1:23 -25 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of
INCORRUPTIBLE, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth
FOR EVER. For all flesh
is as grass, and all the glory of man as the flower of grass. The grass withereth, and the flower thereof falleth away: But the
WORD OF THE LORD ENDURETH FOR EVER, And this is the word which by the gospel is preached unto you. (Isa. 40:7, 8)
God bless