Was it clear that the prophet was speaking for God and not for himself? Regardless of the reason if it were a scripturally sound absolute that women should not be in positions of authority over men than God would not have appointed her in the first place, especially in such a high position as a judge over Israel. At the period in biblical history that was the highest position of authority that could be held by either a man or a woman. Apparently, it is not a scripturally sound absolute that a woman cannot be in a position of authority over a man. If so, then this remains true in this present time as well.
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