Calling on the name of the Lord
[SUP]21 [/SUP]‘And it shall be that everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.’ (Acts 2: 21) NASB
“Calling on the name of the name is not an additional requirement to become saved after faith. When you call upon the name of the Lord you trust in him to come to your aid. Inherent in your calling upon that someone is the essential faith that he can and will save you. So, in essence, to call on the name of the Lord unto salvation is to call upon Him in complete trust for Him to save you.” mailmandan, Christian Chat, Works vs works, #132
Amen! Unfortunately, I see that you still refuse to accept the truth because you are unable to see anything beyond your church of Christ indoctrination.
According to the Scriptures, does calling on the name of the Lord have to do with coming to faith or with baptism?
[SUP]16 [/SUP]Now why do you delay? Get up and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on His name.’ (Acts 22:16) NASB Was Paul a believer before this statement by Ananias was made? IMO Paul became a believer when the Lord appeared to him three days prior. If that is true, calling on the name of the Lord had nothing to do with coming to faith but it had everything to do with being baptized.
If calling on the name of the Lord has everything to do with being baptized and nothing to do with faith, then salvation is not really through faith, in contradiction to Ephesians 2:8 (and several other verses), but is through works which follow faith (in contradiction to Scripture), yet salvation based on works certainly tickles your ears and feeds your pride. Once again the Greek aorist participle, epikalesamenos, properly translated means "having called" on the name of the Lord. Paul’s calling on Christ's name for salvation preceded his water baptism. It is absurd to think that Paul had not yet called upon the name of the Lord and that water baptism is all the same as calling on the name of the Lord.
Mailmandan resorts to a little funny business by arguing that this verse should read, “Now why do you delay? Get up and be baptized, and wash away your sins, having called on His name.” If what the mailmandan says is true, it did not work for Paul because after three says of praying and fasting, Paul was still in his sin, unforgiven, unsaved.
Just as these Gentiles in (Acts 10:43-47; 11:17,18) who
believed in Him, received remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit and even spoke in tongues were still in their sins, unforgiven, unsaved BEFORE water baptism? Yeah right! I already shared with you in post #102 when Paul was saved. In Acts 9, prior to being water baptized, Paul had already
repented, believed and submitted to Christ as Lord. In Acts 9, the Savior told Ananias that Paul "is a chosen vessel unto me" (v. 15), although the apostle had not yet been baptized. Before Paul was baptized, Christ had already commissioned him to "bear [His] name before the Gentiles, and kings, and the children of Israel" (Acts 9:15); such a commission is not God’s portion for one still lost and under divine wrath. Before Paul’s baptism, Christ had set him aside as one who would "suffer for His name’s sake" (9:16). Can one who is a child of the devil, as all the lost are (Ephesians 2:1-3, John 8:44), really suffer for Christ’s sake? NO. God accepted Paul’s prayers before his baptism (Acts 9:11). People in the church of Christ teach that God does not hear an unsaved man's prayer, quoting in this regard John 9:31 - "We know that God does not listen to sinners. He listens to the godly man who does his will." Well, Paul was a worshipper of God, calling Christ "Lord" and then setting out to do His will. All of these things characterized Paul
before he was baptized. So, Paul had already believed in Christ when Ananias came to pray for him to receive his sight (Acts 9:17). It also should be noted that Paul at the time when Ananias prayed for him to receive his sight, he was
filled with the Holy Spirit (Acts 9:17)--this was
before he was water baptized (Acts 9:18). Verse 17 connects his being filled with the Spirit with the receiving of his sight. We know that he received his sight prior to his baptism. In Acts 9, the Savior told Ananias that Paul "is a chosen vessel unto me" (v. 15), although the apostle had not yet been baptized. Before Paul was baptized, Christ had already commissioned him to "bear His name before the Gentiles, and kings, and the children of Israel" (Acts 9:15); such a commission is not God’s portion for one still lost and under divine wrath. Before Paul’s baptism, Christ had set him aside as one who would "suffer for His name’s sake" (9:16). Can one who is a child of the devil, as all the lost are (Ephesians 2:1-3, John 8:44), really suffer for Christ’s sake? NO. God accepted Paul’s prayers before his baptism (Acts 9:11). People in the church of Christ teach that God does not hear an unsaved man's prayer, quoting in this regard John 9:31 - "We know that God does not listen to sinners. He listens to the godly man who does his will." Well, Paul was a worshipper of God, calling Christ "Lord" and then setting out to do His will. All of these things characterized Paul before he was baptized. So, Paul heard and believed in Christ prior to getting water baptized. Paul had already believed in Christ when Ananias came to pray for him to receive his sight (Acts 9:17). It also should be noted that Paul at the time when Ananias prayed for him to receive his sight, he was
filled with the Holy Spirit (Acts 9:17)--this was
before he was water baptized (Acts 9:18). Verse 17 connects his being filled with the Spirit with the receiving of his sight. We know that he received his sight prior to his baptism. *Acts 26:18 - To open their eyes, in order to
turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan to God, that they may
receive forgiveness of sins and an inheritance among those who are
sanctified by faith in Me. *What happened to baptism?
What was Paul asking God to do by being baptized? [SUP]21 [/SUP]Corresponding to that, baptism now saves you—not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience—through the resurrection of Jesus Christ, (1 Peter 3: 21) NASB Baptism is an appeal to God to give the appellant a good conscience by the forgiveness of their sins according to the promises of God.
As I already explained to you in post #102, the genitive in the Greek text is correctly translated as the pledge of a good conscience, not for a good conscience.
It is a pledge made from a good conscience. Baptism is a pledge to God made from a good conscience. It is that aspect (what is signified, “the answer of a good conscience toward God”) rather than the external rite (the sign, the application of water) that saves. The symbol and the reality are closely related and the symbol is sometimes used to refer to the reality and that seems to be what is confusing you. A FLOOD OF CONFUSION. By saying,
"not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience - through the resurrection of Jesus Christ, Peter guards against saving power to the physical ceremony itself. So in 1 Peter 3:21; it's not the water itself that saves us, but the "appeal-to-God-for-good-conscience". Just as the eight people in the ark were "saved THROUGH water" as they were IN THE ARK. They were not literally saved "by" the water. Hebrews 11:7 is clear on this point (..built an
ARK for the
SAVING of his household). NOTE: The context reveals that ONLY the righteous (Noah and his family) were DRY and therefore SAFE. In contrast, ONLY THE WICKED IN NOAH'S DAY CAME IN CONTACT WITH THE WATER AND THEY ALL PERISHED.
Where is the promise made? [SUP]38 [/SUP]Peter said to them, “Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. (Acts 2: 38) NASB
As I already explained to you numerous times, in Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical.
Faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:38; 3:19; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31). *Perfect Harmony*
According to the Scriptures, does calling on the name of the Lord follow coming to faith?
If it does, then we are not really saved through faith in Christ, as the Scriptures teach, but through works which follow faith, in contradiction to Scripture. You don't seem to mind contradictions in Scripture as long as your biased church doctrine is upheld.
[SUP]14 [/SUP]How then will they call on Him in whom they have not believed? How will they believe in Him whom they have not heard? And how will they hear without a preacher? (Rom. 10:14). The question by Paul indicates that one must believe in order to call upon the name of the Lord. Common sense tells us that you would not call on the name of the Lord if you did not already believe in Him.
Common sense tells us that we must first believe in the existence and historical facts about Christ before we can call upon Him and receive Him through faith by believing the gospel. Yet since you believe that all belief/faith is the same "except for the lack of works" and cannot grasp this DEEPER belief/faith which
trusts exclusively in Jesus Christ for salvation, you remain confused.
Why does the mailmandan need to make calling on the name of the Lord simultaneous with coming to faith?
Because we are saved through faith and not by works which follow faith. When you call upon the Lord to save you it is that you trust in him to come to your aid. Inherent in your calling upon the name of the Lord is the essential faith that He can and will save you. If calling on the name of the Lord is an additional requirement to become saved after faith, then we are not really saved through faith, but through works which follow faith. This is what you cannot seem to grasp.
Unfortunately he, like so many others, have been deceived by the “faith only” doctrine.
Unfortunately, you have been deceived by the church of Christ into believing that salvation is by "water and works" instead of by grace through faith. The "faith only" per James = empty profession of faith, dead faith (James 2:14-18). This is not the kind of faith that I teach saves. James is not teaching that we are saved "by" works, as you teach. His concern is to
show the reality of the faith professed by the individual (James 2:18) and demonstrate that the faith claimed (James 2:14) by the individual is genuine. Simple! Too simple! But you insist on making it difficult. So when you hear a genuine believer say that we are saved by "faith alone," they are not saying that we are saved by the "kind" of faith that remains alone - "barren of works." Saving faith
results in producing good works, so it's
not alone in that sense but it's still
faith (belief, trust, reliance) in Christ part of the equation that
"alone" saves you as the instrumental means. Good works are the fruit, by-product and demonstrative evidence of our faith, but they are not the instrumental means by which we receive salvation as well. The word "alone" in regards to salvation through faith IN CHRIST alone conveys the message that
Christ saves us through faith based on the merits of His finished work of redemption "alone" and not on the merits of our works. It is through faith "in Christ alone" (and not by the merits of our works) that we are justified on account of Christ (Romans 3:24; 5:1); yet the faith that justifies is never alone (solitary, unfruitful, barren) if it is genuine (James 2:14-24). *Perfect Harmony.* Unfortunately, you are unable to grasp this truth because of your UNBELIEF. What a genuine believer means by salvation through "faith (in Christ) alone" (saved through faith, not works) and what James means by "faith only" (empty profession of faith/dead faith) is NOT the same message. Don't let the word "alone" fool you.
If calling on the name of the Lord saves, then the “faith only” doctrine is repudiated. God bless.
There is no repudiation of salvation through faith IN CHRIST alone (Ephesians 2:8,9) which does not equate to "faith only" (empty profession of faith/dead faith) - per James (James 2:14-24). If those who call on the name of the Lord will be saved and we are saved through faith, then the "salvation by works which follow faith" doctrine (your doctrine) is repudiated. Why don't you call on the name of the Lord right now and ask Him to save you. In order for you to do this, you will need to let go of your works and take hold of Christ through faith. Human pride stands in the way of you choosing to repent and believe the gospel. Please prayerfully consider the truth and God bless. I will continue to pray for you.