Isn't intercourse with any virgin outside of marriage a defilement in this sense, and moreso that this case involved an Israelite maiden by an uncircumcised heathen?
Ezekiel 44 talks about defilement of God's temple simply by having the uncircumcised present. This would be double defilement, given that the uncircumcised heathen was not even married to Dinah.
Ezekiel 44 talks about defilement of God's temple simply by having the uncircumcised present. This would be double defilement, given that the uncircumcised heathen was not even married to Dinah.
Again, and I find myself being redundant here, multiple English Bible translations say that Dinah was raped and taken by force. Furthermore, the Hebrew word (Strong's concordance 6031 a.anah) used in Gen 34:2 that some English Bible versions translate as defiled means to afflict, do violence, force, oppress, silence, treat harshly, violate.
https://biblehub.com/hebrew/6031a.htm
Can you prove that the Strong's Concordance is wrong and the Hebrew word 6031 a.anah.
used in Genesis 34:2 that some English Bible versions translate as defile does not mean to afflict, do violence, force, oppress, silence, treat harshly, violate?
You can deny and ignore the existence and definition of the Hebrew word 6031 a.anah in Gen 34:2 if you like. That is your prerogative. However, it does not mean that I will ignore it.
The Hebrew word used in Ez 44:25 that English Bible versions translate as defile
is Strong's concordance 2930 Tame
https://biblehub.com/lexicon/ezekiel/44-25.htm
and it does mean unclean.
https://biblehub.com/hebrew/2930.htm
However, Strong's concordance
2930 Tame IS NOT the same Hebrew word in Gen 34:2 that describes HOW Shechem lay with Dinah.
The Hebrew word used in Gen 34:2 that some English Bible versions translate as defile is Strong's Concordance 6031 a.anah and it means to afflict, do violence, force, oppress, silence, treat harshly, violate.
Both words that can be translated as defiled.
However, they are two different Hebrew words with two different meanings and two different contexts. They are not the same Hebrew words, and they do not have the same definitions.
I'm not here to debate. I wanted to cite scripture, various Bible translations and Strong's Bible Concordance for readers who may be interested. I have done that. I do not aim to change your mind on the subject matter. I believe your mind is already made up. Likewise, you will not change my mind on the subject matter either.
I will continue to rely on scripture verses and Strong's Concordance to study Hebrew the original language of the Bible. God's word is everlasting - not man-made, unsubstantiated assumptions and opinions.