Contradiction of WORDS

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Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
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Elin said:
Those who leave Christ never truly loved Christ in the first place (1Jn 2:19).

True faith does not apostasize, only counterfeit faith apostasizes
because it has no root of rebirth (Lk 8:13)
.
One cannot leave what they were never really a apart of to begin with.
For one to leave Christ then he must have first been of Christ.
Yep. . ."been" in a counterfeit faith (1Jn 2:19; Lk 8:13).
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
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Your logic fails you because you refuse to understand fee gifts can have conditions and the conditions to not take away the 'freeness".
According to your perverse hermeneutic, the bible has to explicitly state,
"I cannot put conditions on a free gift," in order to mean the gift is truly free.

In your perverse hermeneutic, "free" is not sufficient to mean truly free.

In your perverse hermeneutic, the self-evident has to be established,
the self-evident does not establish itself.
 
E

elf3

Guest
There is no contradictions where you claim there are.

The fact is free gifts can come with conditions and meeting those conditions do not earn the gift.

Again, in Jn 6:27, one on hand Jesus said to LABOUR for the meat that endures unto everlasting life. On the other hand Jesus says He GIVES everlasting life, it's free. Why would He say to labour for something He freely gives? Because He has put conditions on His free gift.
It's amazing how you fail to comprehend the meaning of the word free. I even posted the Websters Dictionary meaning for you somewhere
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
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Elin said:
With which Eph 2:8-9 emphatically disagrees.

God has no conditions for the free gift of salvation by grace (Eph 2:8-9)
through the gift of faith (Php 1:29; 2Pe 1:1; Ac 18:27) and the gift of repentance (2Tim 2:25; Ac 11:18; 5:31).


You rob God of his glory
.
I see in Eph 2:8 that the condition of "faith" is put upon the free gift. So when one has faith he is trying to earn salvation? Hardly.

The condition of FAITH and NOT "faith only"
Great example of your perverse hermeneutic. . .omitting all the gifts of God in salvation and making them a work of man.
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
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SeaBass said:
There is no contradictions where you claim there are.

The fact is free gifts can come with conditions and meeting those conditions do not earn the gift.

Again, in Jn 6:27, one on hand Jesus said to LABOUR for the meat that endures unto everlasting life. On the other hand Jesus says He GIVES everlasting life, it's free. Why would He say to labour for something He freely gives? Because He has put conditions on His free gift.
It's amazing how you fail to comprehend the meaning of the word free.
I even posted the Websters Dictionary meaning for you somewhere
His hermeneutic is perverse, making the book of the gospel a closed book to him.
 
E

elf3

Guest
Well Elin what does that say about his meaning of Grace.
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
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Well Elin what does that say about his meaning of Grace.
Well, if he's going to be consistent, then
free grace also has conditions, and that makes it no longer grace.

'Tis a perverse hermeneutic indeed, and it makes the gospel a closed book to him.
 
E

elf3

Guest
Well, if he's going to be consistent, then
free grace also has conditions, and that makes it no longer grace.

'Tis a perverse hermeneutic indeed, and it makes the gospel a closed book to him.
For sure because how could we ever work our way into heaven. It almost sounds JW (not saying you are SeaBass just making a comparison).
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
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For sure because how could we ever work our way into heaven.
It almost sounds JW (not saying you are SeaBass just making a comparison).
There are plenty of 'em here.

Or Church of Christ.
 

john832

Senior Member
May 31, 2013
11,389
193
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Well, if he's going to be consistent, then
free grace also has conditions, and that makes it no longer grace.

'Tis a perverse hermeneutic indeed, and it makes the gospel a closed book to him.
Grace without conditions is universal salvation. I guess you think that is appropriate.
 
Mar 12, 2014
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Grace without conditions is universal salvation. I guess you think that is appropriate.

Tts 2:11 "For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,"

If grace is unconditional then why isn't all men saved?

Heb 2:9 "But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man."

If the death of Christ is all that is needed for one to be saved, then why isn't every man saved?


Because conditions are not being met.
 

john832

Senior Member
May 31, 2013
11,389
193
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Tts 2:11 "For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,"

If grace is unconditional then why isn't all men saved?

Heb 2:9 "But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man."

If the death of Christ is all that is needed for one to be saved, then why isn't every man saved?


Because conditions are not being met.
So, no conditions means all are saved. No one goes to the Lake of Fire.
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
0
Grace without conditions is universal salvation. I guess you think that is appropriate.
Not all grace is salvation.

The condition for salvation--faith--is a work of God (Php 1:29; 2Pe 1:1; Ac 18:27; Ro 12:3), not man.

God provides to us what he requires of us.

To God be the glory!
 
E

elf3

Guest
So when Jn 6:27 says Jesus "gives" everlasting life, that is not true?
Wait what? when did I ever say Jesus doesn't give everlasting life? Man you twist things up so much I am surprised you aren't dizzy.