If the parable does not relate to the Great Tribulation with regard to 'post-trib', then neither does it relate to the Great Tribulation with regard to 'pre-trib' -- for, it has nothing [ directly ] to do with the tribulation at all.
If there is no tribulation in the parable, then:
~ there is no 'pre-trib' in the parable...
~ there is no 'mid-trib' in the parable...
~ there is no 'post-trib' in the parable...
"You can't have your cake and eat it too."
If there is no tribulation in the parable, then you cannot say that the parable "promotes" the 'pre-trib' view.
If you say that there is a 'pre-trib'
concept present in the parable, then do not say that there is no tribulation in the parable.
The 'covenant' part of it has already occurred. The Bride awaits for the return of the Groom - one time - for the wedding.
The Groom does not take the Bride back to his father's house before the wedding. After the Groom returns, he does not leave again.
~
The 'betrothal' has already occurred.
~
Jesus has gone away to prepare for the Bride.
~ Jesus will come back for His Bride.
When Jesus returns - He is here to stay.
The wedding takes place at the Second Coming of Christ.
Now -- when is the Second Coming of Christ...?