Why the king james?
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Why am I so hung up?
Because when the word says that by grace I have been saved through faith. That is not an accurate discription of the word God spoke.
God spoke words which said, I have been saved I am saved, and I will forever be saved (Saved is the perfect tense, which has no English equivalent)
Saying I have been saved is not completely accurate, I could have been saved in the past, but now I am not. I could be saved, and I still am, but I may not be saved in the future.. The English word for word translation can not tell us that either of these two statement are correct, or incorrect.
Yet the greek makes it clear. With the perfect tense verb saved, There is no doubt, I was saved in a past moment by placing my faith in Christ, not by works, I continue to be saved, and I will forever be saved, because my salvation is a completed action (perfect tense)
so I have to deal with people who say this salvation is not forever, and can be lost, because I have a flawed english text, which does not properly portray the true word of God.
And please. stop with these silly things which do not show youhave any comprehension of what I was trying to say.
Because when the word says that by grace I have been saved through faith. That is not an accurate discription of the word God spoke.
God spoke words which said, I have been saved I am saved, and I will forever be saved (Saved is the perfect tense, which has no English equivalent)
Saying I have been saved is not completely accurate, I could have been saved in the past, but now I am not. I could be saved, and I still am, but I may not be saved in the future.. The English word for word translation can not tell us that either of these two statement are correct, or incorrect.
Yet the greek makes it clear. With the perfect tense verb saved, There is no doubt, I was saved in a past moment by placing my faith in Christ, not by works, I continue to be saved, and I will forever be saved, because my salvation is a completed action (perfect tense)
so I have to deal with people who say this salvation is not forever, and can be lost, because I have a flawed english text, which does not properly portray the true word of God.
And please. stop with these silly things which do not show youhave any comprehension of what I was trying to say.
P
I appreciate the NIV footnote here which is not included in my KJV.
The KJV reads: "For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him."
Both mean the same.
NKJV is better than both NIV and KJV, in this instance (and in my opinion):
...pretty awesome translation, there--that NKJV!
The AMP Bible is pretty awesome as well!
In this case a reader might wonder, "What is this 'righteousness of God'?"
The AMP Bible does a great job of clarifying immediately:
He made Christ who knew no sin to [judicially] be sin on our behalf, so that in Him we would become the righteousness of God [that is, we would be made acceptable to Him and placed in a right relationship with Him by His gracious lovingkindness]. (AMP)
I am thankful we have multiple trustworthy Bible translations available!
Why does the KJ "version" put in Holy "Ghost" instead of calling Him the Holy Spirit?...the word for "spirit" and ghost" are the exact same word in the Greek. Where did this "ghost" thing come from? When we use the term ghost today people do not think of the Holy Spirit..they think of Casper...
Here is the meaning of "ghost" in our language today.
"the spirit of a deceased person"
the KJV was good for back then in 1611 and it is still good but it is not the "Only" word of God.....that's foolishness gone to seed again...and people that were born-again from reading the other versions of the scriptures have the same Spirit and Christ as their Lord - no matter what anyone that only uses KJ "version" of the scriptures says otherwise.
Here is the meaning of "ghost" in our language today.
"the spirit of a deceased person"
the KJV was good for back then in 1611 and it is still good but it is not the "Only" word of God.....that's foolishness gone to seed again...and people that were born-again from reading the other versions of the scriptures have the same Spirit and Christ as their Lord - no matter what anyone that only uses KJ "version" of the scriptures says otherwise.
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Here's Strong's definition not that Stong's opinion is any better than yours but I don't see saved, am saved and continue to be saved. Did you get that from another Greek dictionary?
Strong’s Definitions [?](Strong’s Definitions Legend)
†σώζω sṓzō, sode'-zo; from a primary σῶς sōs (contraction for obsolete σάος sáos, "safe"); to save, i.e. deliver or protect (literally or figuratively):—heal, preserve, save (self), do well, be (make) whole.
Strong’s Definitions [?](Strong’s Definitions Legend)
†σώζω sṓzō, sode'-zo; from a primary σῶς sōs (contraction for obsolete σάος sáos, "safe"); to save, i.e. deliver or protect (literally or figuratively):—heal, preserve, save (self), do well, be (make) whole.
The KJV uses Holy Ghost and Holy Spirit because numbers mean something in the word of God. Holy Ghost is found exactly 90 times and Holy Spirit is found exactly 7 times.... now go learn what that meaneth and maybe God will have mercy and not sacrifice.
Do yourself a favor Grace check things out, look for reasons things are done before you try to convince people to throw away Gods pure word. Also learn what born again is before you claim all "born again" people are the same.
Do yourself a favor Grace check things out, look for reasons things are done before you try to convince people to throw away Gods pure word. Also learn what born again is before you claim all "born again" people are the same.
Although you may not realize it, you have contradicted yourself clearly. What you have said in the latter post, in your own words, agrees with what we've been trying to tell you for over 60 pages. Perhaps it is time for you to surrender your cultic adherence to the "letter" of the KJV. Either that, or retract what you said in these latter two posts. Doing neither makes you a hypocrite, as defined below.
[h=1]hypocrite noun hyp·o·crite \ˈhi-pə-ˌkrit\[/h]
[h=1]hypocrite noun hyp·o·crite \ˈhi-pə-ˌkrit\[/h]
- : a person who claims or pretends to have certain beliefs about what is right but who behaves in a way that disagrees with those beliefs
![4199675334_66c3e3d61d_z[1].jpg](/data/attachments/71/71864-50990c0bf5bb02aa3cd66f1f7828e6a9.jpg)
No I'm not a hypocrite my friend, you just don't understand what I'm saying. The body has to be right to hold the right spirit. The KJV below is the right container, it contains the word of God. Those words could have been said many different ways and still contained the word of God.
[h=1]John 3:16King James Version (KJV)[/h]16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
The words that COULD NOT BE USED are below, these words do not contain the word of God.
[h=1]John 3:16New International Version (NIV)[/h]16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.
[h=1]John 3:16King James Version (KJV)[/h]16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
The words that COULD NOT BE USED are below, these words do not contain the word of God.
[h=1]John 3:16New International Version (NIV)[/h]16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.
Edit to say: The number 97 in the bible means nothing as far as I know. I think that's why God had the KJV translators use Holy Ghost and Holy Spirit so that the book truly is in divine order both linguistically and numerolgically... plus it's a stumbling block for people like you.
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me too...this is just getting weirder and weirder every time I come in here.....I do know one thing...I will be checking every thing that guy says with scripture......